Test 1
Subject “Environmental factors. environment conditions"
Part I
1. All components of the natural environment that affect the state of organisms are called factors:
a) abiotic
b) biotic
c) environmental
2. Correspondence between organisms and their environment is manifested in the following form:
a) the structure of the flipper of marine mammals
b) long hair in a domestic cat
c) high milk production in cows
3. Anthropogenic factor is:
a) impact on organisms, populations, communities of plants and animals
b) the impact of light, water on organisms, populations, communities;
c) changes in the habitat and the organisms themselves, populations, communities under the influence of human activity.
4. Environmental factors include:
a) abiotic
b) biotic
c) anthropogenic
d) all answers are correct
5. The biotic factor includes:
a) light
b) humidity
c) soil composition
6. Indirect effect on organisms has:
a) light
b) relief
c) warm
d) humidity
7. The construction of a dam can be seen as an example of a factor:
a) abiotic
b) biotic
c) anthropogenic
d) not ecological at all
8. Pollination of plants by insects is an example of a factor:
a) abiotic
b) biotic
c) anthropogenic
9. Abiotic factors include:
a) light and wind
c) humidity and pollution
d) soil composition and symbiosis
10. Abiotic environmental factors that change in time and space are called:
a) abiotic conditions
b) biotic conditions
c) environmental conditions
d) anthropogenic conditions
11.* In the process of fat oxidation, water gets
a) clothes moth and camel
b) a cow and a dog
c) wheat and birch
d) a butterfly and a spider
12.* Environmental factors that have the greatest impact on the number of modern reptiles:
a) abiotic
b) biotic
c) anthropogenic.
d) abiotic and biotic
13.* Which product of human activity will be processed the longest in the circulation of substances:
a) paper
b) polyethylene
c) tin
d) cotton fabric
14.* Under the conditions of urbanization, the following changes in abiotic factors occur:
a) an increase in temperature and wind speed
b) decrease in temperature and wind speed
c) increase in temperature and acidity
d) decrease in temperature and acidity
15.* The temperature remains constant in the environment:
a) soil
b) water
c) ground-air
d) there is no correct answer
16.* The most harmful effect on living organisms can have
a) infrared radiation
b) radiation in the blue-green part of the spectrum
c) radiation in the yellow-red part of the spectrum
d) ultraviolet radiation
17.* Abiotic environmental factors include:
a) relief, climate, temperature, light, humidity, water salinity
b) plant litter, soil mineral composition, humidity
c) water salinity, dead parts of aquatic plants and animal remains, light
18.* Biotic environmental factors include:
a) plant litter, soil mineral composition, humidity
b) water salinity, dead parts of aquatic plants and animal remains, light
d) gas composition of the atmosphere, pollution of soil, air and water by industrial waste
19.* Anthropogenic environmental factors include:
a) salinity of water, the mineral composition of the soil and the gas composition of the atmosphere
b) plant litter, humidity, humidity, water salinity
c) death of plants and animals from infections caused by microorganisms
d) pollution of soil, air and water by industrial waste
Part II.
Choose the right judgments
1. The limits of thermal endurance in different organisms are the same.
2. Water - component every living organism.
3. The light of the sun serves the only source energy for wildlife.
4. Among animals, amphibians withstand the largest temperature range.
5. Environmental factors can have both direct and indirect effects on organisms.
6. Light serves as a signal for the restructuring of the processes occurring in the body, which allows them to best respond to the ongoing changes in external conditions.
7. Any environmental factor has certain limits of positive impact on living organisms.
8. Wind has a direct effect on organisms.
9. Pollutants cannot be transmitted through food chains
10. Pollution of nature leads to a decrease in species diversity and a violation of the stability of biocenoses.
Test 2
Subject "General patterns of influence of environmental factors on organisms"
Part I
Choose one correct answer
1. The law of the minimum was formulated:
a) J. Liebig
b) V. Dokuchaev
c) V. Vernadsky
d) A. Oparin
2. Limiting factors for the population may be associated with a lack of:
a) water
b) heat
c) food
d) with all these factors
3. Tolerance is the ability of organisms:
a) withstand changes in living conditions
b) adapt to new conditions
c) form local forms
d) adapt to strictly defined conditions
4. Which of the abiotic factors limit the spread of life in the ocean, but usually do not limit the spread of life on land?
a) minerals, nitrogen
b) minerals, oxygen
c) light, nitrogen
d) light, oxygen
5. A population that occupies a certain position in the biocenosis is called:
a) life form
b) ecological niche
c) ecotype
d) area
6.* The effect of environmental factors on living organisms as irritants:
a) causes adaptive changes in organisms
b) makes it impossible for organisms to exist under given conditions
c) causes structural and functional changes in organisms
d) indicate changes in other environmental factors
7.* The effect of the environmental factor on the body is most effectively manifested at its values;
a) minimal
b) maximum
c) optimal
d) minimum and maximum
8.* Environmental factors affect living organisms:
a) at the same time and together with each other
b) simultaneously and in isolation from each other
c) together with each other, but in a certain sequence
d) isolated from each other and in a certain sequence
9.* Ecological factors limiting the distribution of living organisms in the tundra;
a) lack of warmth
b) lack of moisture and heat
c) lack of food and moisture
d) excess moisture and lack of food
10.* Ecological factors limiting the spread of living organisms in desert conditions;
a) too much heat
b) lack of moisture and food
c) excess heat and lack of food
d) lack of soil and lack of food
Part II.
Choose the right judgments
1. Tolerance of an individual remains unchanged throughout life.
2. High specialization of organisms is an adaptation to strictly defined conditions.
3. Organisms with a wide tolerance range tend to be more likely to fight for existence.
4. Any factor influencing living organisms can become either optimal or limiting, depending on the strength of its impact.
5. Smooth curve corresponds to a narrow tolerance range.
6. Any organism can exist only in a certain temperature range.
7. The limiting factor for organisms is always temperature.
8. Ecotypes are characterized by different limits of resistance to temperature, light or other factors.
9. The curve of tolerance has the form of a hyperbola.
10. The successful survival of living organisms depends on a complex of conditions.
11. Environmental factors have a constant impact on living organisms, but act in isolation from each other.
12. The intensity of the environmental factor, the most favorable for the life of the organism, is called the biological optimum.
13. The limits of sensitivity of organisms to deviation from the optimum for any of the factors do not depend on the intensity of the action of other factors.
14. The existence of each species is limited to that of the factors that most deviates from the optimum.
Test 3
Subject "Environmental Resources"
Part I
Choose one correct answer
1. Substances and energy involved by organisms in their life processes are called:
a) nutrients
b) environmental resources
c) energy resources
d) food resources
2. Animals receive elements of mineral nutrition from:
a) water
b) soil
c) food
d) air
3. The deposition of fat in animals serves as an adaptation to life for a long time without:
a) light
b) salt
c) air
d) water
4. Plant resourcesNot are:
a) water and mineral salts
b) solar energy
c) organic matter
d) carbon dioxide
5. For animals, the resource is:
a) solar energy
b) carbon dioxide
c) oxygen
6. Elements of mineral nutrition of plants are obtained from:
a) soil and water
b) soil
c) soil and air
d) air and water
7. Resources include:
a) energy
b) space
c) food
d) all answers are correct
8. Food chains are:
a) relations between species, as a result of which materials and energy are sequentially extracted from the original food substance;
b) genetic relationships between individuals of a species;
c) metabolism in the cells of the body
9. All species that form the food chain exist due to organic matter created by:
a) bacteria
b) mushrooms
c) animals
d) plants
10.* The main amount of solar energy in the oceans is stored:
a) phytoplankton
b) zooplankton
c) fish and marine mammals
d) large benthic algae
11. * Organisms that create organic substances from inorganic substances using the energy of the Sun are called:
a) producers
b) consumers
c) decomposers
12.* Which organism is classified as a heterotroph:
a) birch
b) cabbage
c) hare
d) strawberry
13.* The successive reduction in the mass of organic matter from plants to each subsequent link in the food chain is called:
a) power supply
b) rule ecological pyramid
c) the circulation of substances
d) migration of atoms
14.* Primary consumers in ecosystems:
a) herbivorous insects
b) herbivorous mammals
c) all herbivores
15.* Secondary consumers in ecosystems:
a) all carnivores
b) predatory insects
c) large carnivorous mammals
16.* Properly composed food chain:
a) leaves → aphids → ladybug → spider → starling → hawk
b) aphid → leaves → ladybug → spider → starling → hawk
c) hawk → starling → spider → ladybug → aphid → leaves
17.* The length of the food chain in ecosystems is limited at each trophic level:
a) amount of food
b) loss of energy
c) the rate of accumulation of organic matter.
Part II.
Choose the right judgments
1. The body of a green plant is created from the molecules of inorganic substances.
2.Solar radiation is an energy resource.
3. Chlorophyll is a colorless pigment that is involved in the process of photosynthesis.
4. The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere does not significantly affect the rate of photosynthesis.
5. Biogenic elements include: oxygen, carbon, lead, nitrogen, mercury.
6. Biogenic elements can only be used once in an ecosystem.
7. The energy of radiation, converted in the process of photosynthesis into the chemical energy of carbon compounds, makes its earthly path only once.
8. Resources can be spent and exhausted.
9. Only water and solar energy are needed for the process of photosynthesis.
10. Animals receive nitrogen, phosphorus, sulfur, magnesium and other elements from water and air.
Test 4
Subject "Adaptation of organisms to different conditions of existence"
Part I
Choose one correct answer
1. Similar life forms have:
a) dolphin and pike
b) marsupial flying squirrel and marsupial mole
c) mole and squirrel
d) snake and crocodile
2. Different species leading a similar way of life and occupying a similar position in the structure of natural communities have similar types of structure and are combined into groups called:
a) life forms
b) morphological adaptations
c) adaptation of organisms
d) population
3. The external similarity that occurs in representatives of different unrelated species as a result of a similar lifestyle is called:
a) convergence
b) parallel evolution
c) life form
d) morphological adaptation
4. To the environments of life Not include:
a) water
b) soil
c) living organisms
d) alkaline acid
5. The main regulator of seasonal changes in the life of plants and animals is the change:
a) amount of food
b) air humidity
c) the length of the day
d) climate
6. Convergence is called:
a) divergence of signs in the process of evolution
b) convergence of features in the process of evolution
c) combining several populations into one
d) the formation of an isolated group within a population
7. Viper and earthworm refer to:
a) similar life forms
b) one class of animals
c) one type of animal
d) one family of animals
8. Animal molting is a process:
a) directed
b) chaotic
c) cyclic
d) there is no correct answer
9. Activity throughout the year shows:
a) a bear
b) already
c) toad
d) moose
10. To cyclic processes Not applies to:
a) tidal rhythm of movement of animals living in the tidal zone
b) annual leaf shedding by deciduous trees
c) earthquakes and floods
d) change of day and night
11.* Of the listed biological phenomena, daily biorhythms are subject to:
a) opening and closing of flowers in plants
12.* Of the listed biological phenomena, tidal biorhythms are subject to:
a) opening and closing of stomata on the leaves of plants
b) migration of salmon fish to spawn in rivers
c) opening and closing of shells in marine molluscs
d) bud break and leaf fall in trees and shrubs
13.* Of the listed biological phenomena, annual biorhythms are subject to:
a) opening and closing of stomata on plant leaves
b) migration of salmon fish to spawn in rivers
c) opening and closing of shells in marine molluscs
d) change in the tendency to bleeding in operated patients
Part II.
Choose the right judgments
1. Changes in the external structure of organisms - an example of adaptation to living conditions.
2. The change of seasons is not a periodically repeating process.
3. Cyclic changes are those that are repeated at regular intervals.
4.Directed changes are those that are poorly predictable.
5. Chaotic changes are those that change indefinitely, poorly predictable.
6. The ability of organisms to cyclic changes arose in the process of evolution through artificial selection.
7. The cockchafer flies out of the chrysalis only after the appearance of leaves or flowers on plants of a certain species.
8. Migrations are partial migrations to other climatic regions.
9. Extremely harsh conditions (very cold winters, long droughts, etc.) can lead to the death of some individuals.
10. Many species of birds, mammals, fish remain active throughout the year.
Test 5
Subject "Interspecific Relationships of Organisms"
Part I
Choose one correct answer
1. The form of relationships in which one species receives some advantage without bringing harm or benefit to the other is called:
a) proto-operation
c) commensalism
d) amensalism
2. Symbiotic relationships, in which the presence of each of the two species becomes mandatory for the other partner, are called:
a) commensalism;
b) mutualism
c) proto-operation
d) neutralism
3. Bacteria that cause fermentation constantly live in the stomach and intestines of mammals. This is an example:
a) predation
c) commensalism
d) symbiosis
4. The form of relationships between species, in which organisms of one species live off the nutrients or tissues of an organism of another species, are called:
a) predation
b) symbiosis
c) amensalism
5. If a bitter fish lays eggs in the mantle of a bivalve mollusk, this is an example:
a) mutually beneficial relationship
b) useful neutral relations
c) beneficial relationships
d) mutually harmful relations
6. Self-thinning at firs - an example:
a) intraspecific competition
b) interspecific competition
c) commensalism
d) population aging
a) has no significant effect on the host
b) always leads the owner to death
c) is beneficial
d) is harmful, but only in some cases leads to the death of the owner
8. Some mushrooms grow on the roots of certain trees. This type of relationship is called:
b) symbiosis
c) commensalism
d) saprophytism
9. Predators in the natural community:
a) destroy the population of victims
b) contribute to the growth of the prey population
c) improve the population of victims and regulate its number
d) do not affect the size of the prey population
10. An example of interspecific competition is the relationship between:
a) wolves in a pack
c) red and black cockroaches
d) mouse-like rodents and foxes
11. An example of competition is the relationship between:
a) predators and prey
c) individuals of the same species
d) living organisms and abiotic factors
12. Examples of commensalism are:
a) the relationship of lions with hyenas, picking up the remains of half-eaten food
b) the relationship of leguminous plants with nodule bacteria that settle on their roots
c) the relationship of pennicillium mold fungi and some bacteria for which antibiotics secreted by fungi are detrimental
13. Examples of symbiosis are:
a) the relationship between red and black cockroaches
b) the relationship of algae and fungus in lichen
c) the relationship between wolves and hares
14. * Insects whose adults lead a free lifestyle, and the larvae develop in the body of the host, feeding on its tissues, are called:
c) symbionts
a) tsetse fly, flea
b) helminths, triposomes
c) tick, broomrape
d) fungus smut, dysenteric amoeba
a) main owner
b) intermediate host
c) carrier
17. * Organisms that lead a similar way of life and have a similar structure:
a) do not compete with each other
b) live side by side and use the same resources
c) live side by side, but use different resources
d) live nearby and are active at the same time
18.* The life cycle of the malaria pathogen proceeds:
a) in fresh water → in the salivary glands of the malarial mosquito → in human blood;
b) in human liver cells → in human blood → in mosquito intestines
c) in human blood → in mosquito salivary glands → in mosquito intestines
d) in mosquito salivary glands → in mosquito blood → in human blood
b) proto-operation
c) housing
d) acclimatization.
Part II.
Choose the right judgments
1. Intraspecific relations - a mechanism that ensures self-regulation of populations.
2. Interspecific competition plays an important role in the formation of a natural community.
3. The spatial distribution of animals in a population is regulated by their behavior.
5. The settlement of rats and mice in houses was caused by the destruction of their natural habitat by man.
6. Abiotic factors do not affect the competitive relations of two related species.
7. Territorial behavior in animals - a way to regulate the size of the population.
8. Organisms of the two species respond in the same way to an increase in the density of their population.
10. Predation is generally beneficial to the prey population.
Test 6
Subject Fluctuations in the number of organisms. Environmental regulation»
Part I
Choose one correct answer
1. A set of freely interbreeding individuals of the same species, which exists for a long time in a certain part of the range relative to other sets of the same species, is called:
a) kind
b) breed
c) population
d) sort
2. The effect of the factor is least related to the population size:
b) accumulation of waste products
c) predation
d) harsh winter
3. The number of individuals per unit area (volume) of living space shows:
a) species diversity
b) fertility
c) population density
d) population abundance
4. Which of the populations is the most viable?
a) in which most individuals have completed reproduction
b) the majority are young individuals and have completed reproduction
c) individuals of all age groups
d) the majority are young and breeding individuals
5. The population size remains approximately the same from year to year, because:
a) approximately the same number of individuals die each year
b) organisms stop reproducing when the population exceeds the average level
c) the death rate and birth rate are about the same
6. A population is threatened with death if its size:
a) maximum
b) minimal
c) fluctuate
d) constant
7. The change in the number of organisms is called:
c) imbalance
b) population dynamics
c) population fluctuation
d) birth and death rates
8. Many species in nature consist of a number of:
a) families
b) populations
c) individuals
d) diverse groups
9. The reason for population fluctuations is:
a) hereditary variability
b) natural selection
c) the ratio between the birth rate and the death of individuals in a population
d) relationship between parents and offspring
10.* If n is the number of organisms, t is time, then the formula Dn ⁄ Dt means:
A) average speed changes in the number of organisms over time
b) population growth rate in percent
c) the rate of change in the number of organisms per unit of time in a certain area
11.* The most stable are populations consisting of:
a) one generation
b) two generations
c) three generations
d) several generations and descendants of each of them
12.* Old individuals make up a large proportion in populations:
a) fast growing
b) in a stable state
c) with decreasing numbers
13.* If the population growth rate is zero, then:
a) the population is increasing and high predator activity is expected
b) the population decreases due to the accumulation of mutations
c) the population reaches its maximum size
14. * The ratio of individuals in a population by age is called:
a) the age spectrum of the population
b) physiological fertility
c) ecological fertility
d) the average life span of individuals in a population
Part II.
Choose the right judgments
1. Each population is isolated to some extent from other populations of the same species.
2. Unlimited population growth is detrimental to any population, as it leads to the undermining of its life support.
3. The population is homogeneous: its constituent individuals practically do not differ from each other.
4. The loss of a certain part of individuals by a population, as a rule, is compensated by more intensive reproduction.
5. The age structure of the population is determined by external conditions and does not depend on the life cycle of the species.
6. A population consisting of unequal individuals is more stable.
7. Each population has well-defined boundaries.
8. Ecological fertility depends on abiotic factors and population composition.
9. Mortality does not limit population growth.
10. Microevolutionary processes are closely related to population dynamics.
Key to test tasks
Test 1
Part I
1V, 2A, 3V, 4G, 5G, 6B, 7V, 8B, 9A, 10V, 11A, 12V, 13B, 14V, 15G, 16G, 17A, 18V, 19G
Part II
2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 10
Test 2
Part I
1A, 2G, 3A, 4G, 5B, 6A, 7V, 8A, 9A, 10B
Part II
2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14
Test 3
Part I
1B, 2V, 3G, 4V, 5V, 6A, 7G, 8A, 9G, 10A, 11A, 12V, 13B, 14V, 15A, 16A, 17B
Part II
1, 2, 4, 7, 8.
Test 4
Part I
1A, 2A, 3A, 4G, 5V, 6B, 7A, 8V, 9G, 10V, 11A, 12V, 13B
Part II
1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 10.
Test 5
Part I
1V, 2B, 3V, 4G, 5B, 6A, 7G, 8B, 9V, 10V, 11V, 12A, 13B, 14G, 15V, 16A, 17V, 18B, 19V
Part II
1,2,3,4,7,9,10
Test 6
Part I
1V, 2G, 3V, 4G, 5V, 6B, 7B, 8B, 9V, 10A, 11G, 12V, 13V, 14A
Part II
1,2,4,6,8,10
1. How many degrees does the temperature drop for every 100 m when climbing mountains?:
0.5º
For every 100 km when moving from the equator to the poles:
0.5º
2. What percentage of the mass of the earth's crust are all plants and animals?:
0.1%
3. At what height is the ozone shield that protects the Earth from solar radiation?
45 km
4. What factor determines the lower limit of life in the lithosphere:
Temperature
5. What factor determines the bottom in the atmosphere:
Air
temperature
ultra-violet rays
5. The decomposition of proteins with the formation of ammonia (ammonification) is carried out:
nodule bacteria
soil bacteria
decomposers
6. Formation of nitrogenous compounds by fixing atmospheric nitrogen
Implemented:
Nodule bacteria
denitrifying bacteria
producers
7. The decomposition of salts of nitric acid to the formation of gaseous nitrogen (denitrification) is carried out:
Soil denitrifying bacteria
nodule bacteria
8. First introduced the concept of "biocenosis" in 1877:
K. Möbius
V. V. Dokuchaev
9. Created the first evolutionary theory:
R. Reaumur
C. Linnaeus
Lamarck
10. In 1840, the "law of the minimum" was established:
Y. Liebig
11. The section of ecology that studies the relationship of an organism (species, individual) with the environment is called:
bioecology
Auteecology
paleoecology
12. The section of ecology that studies the life of communities of organisms (ecosystems, biogeocenoses) is called:
megaecology
autecology
synecology
13. The first reserve in Russia was organized in 1882:
On Kamchatka
in the Caucasus
14. The term "biosphere" was first used by:
V. V. Dokuchaev
C. Adams
V. I. Vernadsky
15. The reserve "Askania-Nova" was founded in:
1898
16. The concept of an ecosystem was introduced by:
A. Tansley
V. N. Sukachev
16. Nitrifying bacteria discovered in 1893:
D. I. Ivanovsky;
S. P. Kostychev
S. N. Vinogradsky.
17. Double fertilization in plants was discovered in 1898:
K. A. Timiryazev;
S. G. Navashin
V. N. Sukachev.
18. N. I. Vavilov formulated the law:
biogenetic;
Homological series of hereditary variability;
chromosome theory of heredity;
19. In what year and by whom was chlorophyll synthesized for the first time?:
1960, Woodward;
1961, J. Gurdon
20. Arrange the following plants in descending order of water consumption:
corn;
21. A homogeneous area of the surface, with a certain composition of living and inert components, combined by the exchange of substances and energy into a single natural complex, is called:
landscape;
Biogeocenosis;
formation.
23. Arrange the plants in descending order of life expectancy:
English oak
large-leaved linden
kelp
juniper
tree fern
Norway spruce
24. Which plant has the highest coefficient use of sunlight in photosynthesis:
Chlorella 70%
potato
25. What is the total length of the rivers of Crimea:
5996 km
25. Name the most abundant rivers of Crimea
Black
Biyuk-Karasu
Belbek
26. What is the length of the North Crimean Canal
465 km
27. Are there freshwater lakes in Crimea, if there are, name them.
Small lakes on the yayla of the main mountain range
Ak-Mechet lake on Tarkhankut
28. What is Minamata disease?
Environmental disease caused by mercury poisoning through fish caught in the bay of the same name.
29. When was Greenpeace established?:
1972
30. Chernobyl disaster happened in:
1986
31. Formulate the biogenetic law of F. Muller-E. Haeckel
Individual development of an individual (ontogeny) in in general terms repeats the main stages of development of its ancestral forms (phylogenesis)
32. What is the "greenhouse effect" and what is its cause? What could be its consequences? Do you see opportunities to fix it?
A gradual increase in the temperature of the climate on the planet as a result of the accumulation of carbon dioxide and other gases in the atmosphere, which, like the glass of a greenhouse or greenhouse, passing the sun's rays, prevent thermal radiation from the Earth's surface. The reason for the greenhouse effect is the inability of the Earth's plants to process all the "additional" anthropogenic carbon dioxide released as a result of human and other activities.
33. Explain why river banks have different steepness?
Rivers, as a result of the deflecting action of the Earth's rotation around its axis, tend to shift their channels to the right in the northern hemisphere, and to the left in the southern hemisphere. As a result, near the rivers of the Northern Hemisphere, the right bank is usually steep, and the left bank is gently sloping (the law of river channel migration.)
34. What organisms form the first trophic level in aquatic ecosystems?:
tadpoles
mussels
Fry
cyanobacteria
diatoms
36. How many coastal aquatic complexes are commanded in Crimea?:
31
37. What type of irrigation is the most environmentally friendly in your opinion? Justify the answer.
sprinkling machine "frigate"
sprinkling machine "DDA100-MA"
along the furrows
Drip irrigation
39. Formulate the theorem of G. F. Gause. Give examples.
Two species cannot exist in the same locality if their biological needs are identical. (Muskrat supplanted muskrat)
40. What method of water disinfection is considered the most progressive today?
Chlorination
ultraviolet irradiation
Ozonation
41 A chemical that attracts animals, insects, is called:
Attractant
42. Growing plants without soil in humid air by periodically spraying the roots with nutrient solutions is:
Hydroponics
aeration tank
aeroponics
44. What amount of biomass energy is consumed during the transition from one trophic level to another? (the law of the pyramid of energies by R. Lindemann)
10 %
45. The repeated change of one biocenosis to another, the change of dominant species on the basis of competition is called:
reclamation
Succession
resistance
46. What are the similarities and differences between the ecosystem and biogeocenosis? Justify the answer.
Ecosystem and biogeocenosis - in both cases it is an interacting set of living organisms and the environment. But an ecosystem is a general concept (swamps, an aquarium, an anthill, a biosphere, in general - all these are ecosystems). Biogeocenosis is an ecosystem limited only by a phytocenosis that gives life to animals. That is, biogeocenosis is part of the ecosystem.
47. All water on the planet goes through cycles of splitting in plant cells, and restoration in animal and plant cells in about:
2,000,000 years
48. All atmospheric oxygen passes through living matter in about:
2000 years
49. The productivity of an ecosystem is determined by:
biomass growth
number of consumers
lack of decomposers
50. Where are the largest reserves of water on Earth?
There are 1.5 billion in the world's oceans. km³
In the bowels of the earth 1.3 billion. km³
in glaciers
in icebergs
51. How much fresh water is there on Earth?
100 million km³
10 million km³
35 million km³
52. Where are the main fresh water resources located?
In glaciers, polar snows and icebergs (96%)
53. How many liters of oxygen does an adult consume per day?
700-900 l
54. How many liters of oxygen does a car consume per 1000 km?
300,000 l
55. Anthropogenic factors include:
Temperature and humidity
Deforestation, draining swamps, air pollution
Tasks and exercises for school course general ecology
Part 1. GENERAL ECOLOGY
Introduction. Ecology as a science
1. Ecology is:
a) the science of the relationship of man with the environment;
b) the science of the relationship of living organisms with the environment;
c) nature;
d) protection and rational nature management.
(Answer: b . )
a) C. Darwin;
b) A. Tensley;
c) E. Haeckel;
d) K. Linney.
(Answer: V . )
3. Based on the definition of ecology, establish which statements are literate:
a) “There is a bad environment in our area”;
b) “The ecology in our places is spoiled”;
c) "The environment must be protected";
d) "Ecology - the basis of nature management";
e) "Ecology - people's health";
f) “Our environment has become worse”;
g) Ecology is a science.
(Answer: g and f . )
Chapter 1. Organism and environment.
Potential for reproduction of organisms
1.
Arrange the named types of trees in ascending order of the number of seeds they produce per year: pedunculate oak, drooping birch, coconut palm. How does the size of seeds (fruits) change in the row of trees you have built?
(Answer: coconut palm - pedunculate oak - drooping birch. The larger the seeds, the less the tree produces per unit of time.)
2.
Arrange the named animal species in order of increasing fertility: chimpanzee, pig, common pike, lake frog. Explain why females of some species bring 1-2 cubs at a time, while others - several hundred thousand.
(Answer: chimpanzee - pig - lake frog - common pike. Species in which females bear relatively fewer offspring at one time show more pronounced care for offspring and lower offspring mortality.)
4*. Bacteria can multiply very quickly. Every half an hour, two cells are formed by division from one cell. If one bacterium is placed in ideal conditions with an abundance of food, then in a day its offspring should be 248 = 281474976710 700 cells. This amount of bacteria will fill a 0.25-liter glass. How long should it take for the bacteria to occupy a volume of 0.5 l?
a) one day
b) two days;
c) one hour
d) half an hour.
(Answer: G . )
5*.
Plot the growth of house mice over 8 months in one barn. The initial number was two individuals (male and female). It is known that under favorable conditions, a pair of mice brings 6 mice every 2 months. Two months after birth, the mice become sexually mature and begin to reproduce themselves. The ratio of males and females in the offspring is 1:1.
(Answer: if the time in months is plotted along the X axis, and the number of individuals is plotted along the Y axis, then the coordinates (x, y), etc. sequentially located points on the graph will be: (0, 2), (1, 8), (2, 14), (3, 38), (4, 80).)
6*. Read the following descriptions of the breeding habits of some fish species of approximately the same size. Based on these data, draw a conclusion about the fecundity of each species and compare the names of the species with the number of eggs laid by fish: 10,000,000, 500,000, 3,000, 300, 20, 10. Why is there a drop in fertility in the series of fish species you have built?
Far Eastern salmon chum salmon
lays relatively large eggs in a specially dug hole at the bottom of the river and fills it with pebbles. Fertilization in these fish is external.
Cod
lays small, floating in the water column, caviar. Such caviar is called pelagic. Fertilization in cod is external.
African tilapia
(from perciformes) collect the deposited and fertilized eggs in the oral cavity, in which they bear it until the juveniles hatch. The fish do not feed at this time. Fertilization in tilapia is external.
Small cat sharks
fertilization is internal, they lay large eggs covered with a horn capsule and rich in yolk. Sharks camouflage them in secluded places and guard them for some time.
At katranov
, or spiny sharks living in the Black Sea, also internal fertilization, but their embryos do not develop in water, but in the genital tract of females. Development occurs due to the nutrient reserves of the egg. Mature, capable of independent living cubs.
common pike
lays small eggs on aquatic plants. Fertilization in pike is external.
(Answer: 10,000,000 cod, 500,000 common pike, 3,000 chum salmon, 300 tilapia, 20 cat shark, 10 katran. The fertility of a species depends on the mortality rate of the individuals that make up that species. The higher the mortality rate, the higher the fertility, as a rule. In those species that care little about the survival of their offspring, mortality is quite high. And as compensation, fertility increases. An increase in the degree of care for offspring leads to a relative decrease in the fecundity of the species.)
7*.
Why does a person from birds mainly breed only representatives of the order Galliformes and Anseriformes? It is known that in terms of meat quality, growth rate, size, and degree of adaptation to humans, neither bustards, nor little bustards, nor waders, nor pigeons are inferior to them.
(Answer: representatives of galliformes and, to a lesser extent, anseriformes have very high fecundity. On average, there are 10–12 representatives of chicken birds in a clutch, and in some species (quail) - up to 20 eggs. in masonry different types Anseriformes have an average of 6–8 eggs. At the same time, pigeons and bustards have no more than 2 eggs in a clutch, and no more than 4 eggs for waders.)
8*. If any species is capable of unlimited growth in numbers, why do rare and endangered organisms exist?
(Answer: limiting factors are “guilty” of this. Their action blocks the ability of the species to restore and increase its population. Man, by his activity, favors the strengthening of various limiting factors that reduce the number of the species.)
General laws dependence of organisms on environmental factors
2. Choose the correct definition of the law of limiting factor:
a) the optimal value of the factor is most important for the organism;
b) of all the factors acting on the organism, the most important is the one whose value deviates the most from the optimal;
c) of all the factors acting on the organism, the most important is the one whose value deviates least from the optimal.
(Answer: b . )
3. Choose a factor that can be considered limiting in the proposed conditions.
1. For plants in the ocean at a depth of 6000 m: water, temperature, carbon dioxide, water salinity, light.
2. For plants in the desert in summer: temperature, light, water.
3. For a starling in winter in a forest near Moscow: temperature, food, oxygen, air humidity, light.
4. For river pike in the Black Sea: temperature, light, food, water salinity, oxygen.
5. For wild boar in winter in the northern taiga: temperature; light; oxygen; air humidity; snow cover height.
(Answer: 1 - light; 2 - water; 3 - food; 4 - water salinity; 5 - the height of the snow cover.)
4. Of the listed substances, the most likely to limit the growth of wheat in the field:
a) carbon dioxide
b) oxygen;
c) helium;
d) potassium ions;
e) gaseous nitrogen.
(Answer: G . )
5*. Can one factor fully compensate for the effect of another factor?
(Answer: completely never, partially can.)
The main ways of adaptation of organisms to the environment
1. Three main ways of adapting organisms to adverse environmental conditions: submission, resistance and avoidance of these conditions. Which method can be attributed to:
a) autumn flights of birds from northern nesting areas to southern wintering areas;
b) hibernation of brown bears;
c) active life of snowy owls in winter at minus 40 °C;
d) the transition of bacteria to the state of spores with a decrease in temperature;
e) heating the body of a camel during the day from 37 °C to 41 °C and cooling it down to 35 °C in the morning;
f) a person is in a bath at a temperature of 100 ° C, while his internal temperature remains the same - 36.6 ° C;
g) survival by cacti in the desert of heat at 80 °C;
h) grouse experiencing severe frosts in the thickness of the snow?
(Answer: avoidance - a, h; subordination - b, d, e; resistance - in, e, g.)
2.
What is the difference between warm-blooded (homeothermic) organisms and cold-blooded (poikilothermic) organisms?
(Answer: warm-blooded organisms differ from cold-blooded organisms in that they have a high (usually above 34 ° C) and constant (usually fluctuating within one or two degrees) body temperature.)
3. Of these organisms, homoiotherms include:
A 
) river perch;
b) lake frog;
c) common dolphin;
d) freshwater hydra;
e) Scotch pine;
e) city swallow;
g) infusoria-shoe;
h) red clover;
i) honey bee;
j) boletus mushroom.
(Answer: c, e . )
4.
What is the advantage of homoiothermia over poikilothermia?
(Answer: constant internal body temperature allows animals not to depend on the ambient temperature; creates conditions for the flow of all biochemical reactions in cells; allows biochemical reactions to be carried out at a high speed, which increases the activity of organisms.)
5.
What are the disadvantages of homoiothermia compared to poikilothermia?
(Answer: Homoyothermic animals have greater food and water requirements than poikilothermic animals.
6.
The body temperature of the arctic fox remains constant (38.6 °C) when the ambient temperature fluctuates in the range from –80 °C to +50 °C. List the adaptations that help the polar fox maintain a constant body temperature.
(Answer: coat, subcutaneous fat, evaporation of water from the surface of the tongue (to cool the body), expansion and narrowing of the lumen of skin vessels - physical thermoregulation. The behavior that helps to change the temperature conditions of the environment is behavioral thermoregulation. The advanced regulation of cellular chemical reactions that produce heat, which occurs on command from a special thermal center in the diencephalon - chemical thermoregulation.)
7.
Is it possible to call bacteria that constantly live in hot springs of geysers at a temperature of 70 ° C and are not able to survive if the temperature of their cells changes by only a few degrees, be called warm-blooded organisms?
(Answer: it is impossible, since warm-blooded animals maintain a constantly high internal temperature due to the internal heat produced by the body itself. Bacteria living in hot springs use external heat, but because their temperature is always high and constant, they are called false myothermic.)
8. Crossbills build nests and hatch chicks in winter (in February). This happens because:
a) crossbills have special adaptations to help endure low temperatures;
b) at this time there is a lot of food that adult birds and chicks eat;
c) they need to have time to hatch the chicks before the arrival of the main competitors - birds from the southern regions.
(Answer: b. The main food for crossbills is coniferous seeds. They ripen in late winter - early spring.)
9*.
What kind of birds a few decades ago from the middle and northern latitudes flew south in the fall, and now live all year round in large cities. Explain what it is about.
(Answer: rooks, mallard ducks. This is due to the fact that the amount of available food has increased in winter: the number of garbage dumps and dumps has increased, and non-freezing reservoirs have appeared.)
10*.
Why are dark-colored reptiles more common in cold parts of the range than in warm ones? For example, vipers living beyond the Arctic Circle are predominantly melanistic (black), and in the south they are light-colored.
(Answer: black color absorbs heat more than any other color. Dark-colored reptiles heat up faster.)
11.
During the summer cooling, swifts abandon their nests and move south, sometimes hundreds of kilometers. Chicks fall into a stupor and are able to stay in this state, without food, for several days. When the weather warms up, the parents return. Explain what caused the migrations.
(Answer: with a cold snap, the number of flying insects that swifts feed on decreases sharply. The torpor of swift chicks is an adaptation to life in northern countries, where summer cooling is observed quite often.)
12*.
Why do birds and mammals tolerate low external temperatures more easily than high ones?
(Answer: There are many ways to reduce heat loss, but it is much more difficult to increase heat transfer. The main way for this is the evaporation of water from the body. However, in places where high (more than 35 ° C) air temperatures are often observed, there is usually a lack of moisture.)
13*.
Explain why plants live predominantly green in color near the surface of water bodies, and red in great depths of the sea.
(Answer: only short-wavelength rays penetrate to a depth of several tens and hundreds of meters: blue and violet. For their absorption (with the subsequent transfer of energy to chlorophyll molecules), algae have a significant amount of red and yellow pigments. They disguise green color chlorophyll and the plants look red.)
Basic living environments
1. The fastest moving animals live in an environment:
a) ground-air;
b) underground (soil);
c) water;
d) in living organisms.
2.
Name the largest animal that has ever existed (and still exists) on Earth. What environment does it live in? Why can't such large animals arise and exist in other habitats?
(Answer: blue whale. In the aquatic environment, the buoyant (Archimedean) force can significantly compensate for the force of gravity.)
3.
Explain why in ancient times warriors determined the approach of enemy cavalry by putting their ear to the ground.
(Answer: the conductivity of sound in a dense medium (soil, earth) is higher than in air.)
4.
Ichthyologists face significant challenges in preserving deep-sea fish for museums. Raised on the deck of the ship, they literally explode. Explain why this is happening.
(Answer: enormous pressure is created at great ocean depths. In order not to be crushed, organisms living in these conditions must have the same pressure inside their body. When quickly rising to the surface of the ocean, they are "crushed from the inside" .
)
5.
Explain why deep sea fish have either reduced or hypertrophied (enlarged) eyes.
(Answer: very little light penetrates to great depths. Under these conditions, the visual analyzer must either be very sensitive, or it becomes unnecessary - then vision is compensated by other sense organs: smell, touch, etc.)
6.
If you mix water, sand, inorganic and organic fertilizers, will this mixture be soil?
(Answer: no, because the soil must have a certain structure and must include living beings.)
7. Fill in the gaps by choosing one word from the pair in brackets.
(Answer: not threatening, weak, aggressive, have, do not have, do not have, do not have, great.)
8*.
In what habitats do animals have the simplest structure of the hearing organ (it is necessary to compare closely related groups of animals)? Why? Does this prove that animals in these environments have poor hearing?
(Answer: in soil and water. This is due to the fact that the sound conductivity in these dense media is the best. The mere organization of the hearing organs of these animals does not prove that they are hard of hearing. Better propagation of a sound wave in a dense medium can compensate for the poor organization of the hearing organs.)
9.
Explain why permanently aquatic mammals (whales, dolphins) have much more powerful insulating covers (subcutaneous fat) than terrestrial animals living in harsh and cold conditions. For comparison: the temperature of salt water does not fall below -1.3 ° C, and on the land surface it can drop to -70 ° C.)
(Answer: Water has a much higher thermal conductivity and heat capacity than air. A warm object in water will cool (give off heat) much faster than in air.)
10*.
In the spring, many people burn last year's withered grass, justifying this by saying that fresh grass will grow better. Ecologists, on the contrary, argue that this should not be done. Why?
(Answer: the opinion that new grass grows better after it has fallen is due to the fact that young seedlings seem more friendly and green against the black background of the ashes than among withered grass. However, this is nothing more than an illusion. In fact, during the fall, many shoots of young plants are charred and their growth slows down. The fire kills millions of insects and other invertebrates that live in the litter and grassy layer, and destroys the clutches of birds nesting on the ground. Normally, the organic matter that makes up the withered grass decomposes and gradually passes into the soil. During a fire, they burn out and turn into gases that enter the atmosphere. All this disrupts the cycle of elements in this ecosystem, its natural balance. In addition, burning last year's grass regularly leads to fires: forests, wooden buildings, poles of power supply and communication lines are burning.)
Ways of impact of organisms on the environment
1.
It's been raining. A bright hot sun came out from behind the clouds. In which territory will the soil moisture content be higher after five hours (soil type is the same): a) in a freshly plowed field; b) in a ripe wheat field; c) in an ungrazed meadow; d) in a grazing meadow? Explain why.
(Answer: V. The thicker the vegetation cover, the less the soil heats up and therefore the less water will evaporate.)
2.
Explain why ravines are more likely to form in non-forested natural areas ah: steppes, semi-deserts, deserts. What human activity leads to the formation of ravines?
(Answer: the root systems of trees and shrubs, to a greater extent than grassy vegetation, retain soil when it is washed away by water flows, therefore, in places where forest and shrub vegetation grows, ravines form less often than in fields, steppes and deserts. In the complete absence of vegetation (including grassy), any flow of water will cause soil erosion. When vegetation is destroyed by man (plowing, grazing, construction, etc.), increased soil erosion will always be observed.)
3.*
It has been established that in the summer after the heat, more precipitation falls over the forest than over the nearby vast field. Why? Explain the role of the nature of vegetation in shaping the level of aridity of certain areas.
(Answer: over open spaces, the air heats up faster and stronger than over a forest. Rising up, hot air turns raindrops into steam. As a result, when it rains, less water flows over a vast field than over a forest.
Areas with sparse vegetation or devoid of it at all are more strongly heated by the sun's rays, which causes increased evaporation of moisture, and as a result, depletion of groundwater reserves, soil salinization. Hot air rises. If the desert area is large enough, then this can significantly change the direction of air currents. As a result, less precipitation falls on bare areas, which leads to even more desertification of the territory.)
4.*
In some countries and islands, the importation of live goats is prohibited by law. The authorities motivate this by the fact that goats can harm the nature of the country and change the climate. Explain how it can be.
(Answer: goats eat not only grass, but also leaves, as well as tree bark. Goats can reproduce quickly. Having reached a high number, they mercilessly destroy trees and shrubs. In countries with insufficient rainfall, this causes further desiccation of the climate. As a result, nature is impoverished, which negatively affects the country's economy.)
Adaptive forms of organisms
1.*
Why do wingless forms predominate among insects on small oceanic islands, while winged ones prevail on the nearby mainland or large islands?
(Answer: small oceanic islands are blown by strong winds. As a result, all flying small animals, unable to withstand strong winds, are blown into the ocean and die. In the course of evolution, insects living on small islands have lost the ability to fly.)
Adaptive rhythms of life
1.
List the abiotic environmental factors known to you, the values of which periodically and regularly change over time.
(Answer: illumination during the day, illumination during the year, temperature during the day, temperature during the year, humidity during the year, and others.)
2.
Select from the list those habitats in which animals do not have diurnal rhythms (provided that they live only within one specific environment): lake, river, cave waters, soil surface, ocean floor at a depth of 6000 m, mountains, human intestines , forest, air, soil at a depth of 1.5 m, river bottom at a depth of 10 m, bark of a living tree, soil at a depth of 10 cm.
(Answer: cave waters, ocean floor, soil at a depth of 1.5 m.)
3.
In what month do chinstrap Adélie penguins usually breed in European zoos - May, June, October or February? Explain the answer.
(Answer: October is the time of spring in the Southern Hemisphere.)
4.
Why did the experiment with the acclimatization of the South American llama in the Tien Shan mountains (where the climate is similar to the habitual conditions of the animal's native places) end in failure?
(Answer: mismatch of annual cycles - cubs of animals were born in a new habitat in the fall (in the homeland of animals at this time it is spring) and died cold winter from lack of food.)
CHAPTER 2. COMMUNITIES AND POPULATIONS Types of interactions between organisms
2.
From the proposed list, make pairs of organisms that in nature can be in mutualistic (mutually beneficial) relationships with each other (the names of organisms can be used only once): bee, boletus mushroom, sea anemone, oak, birch, hermit crab, aspen, jay, clover , boletus mushroom, linden, nodule nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
(Answer: bee - linden; boletus mushroom - birch; actinia - hermit crab; oak - jay; boletus mushroom - aspen; clover - nodule nitrogen-fixing bacteria.)
3.
From the proposed list, make pairs of organisms between which trophic (food) connections can form in nature (the names of organisms can be used only once): heron, willow, aphid, amoeba, hare, ant, aquatic bacteria, wild boar, frog, currant , sundew, ant lion, mosquito, tiger.
(Answer: heron - frog; hare-hare - willow; aphid - currant; amoeba - water bacteria; ant lion - ant; tiger - boar; sundew - mosquito.)
4. Lichens are an example of a biotic relationship:
(Answer: A.)
5. Pairs of organisms cannot serve as an example of a predator-prey relationship (choose the correct answer):
a) pike and crucian carp;
b) lion and zebra;
c) freshwater amoeba and bacteria;
d) ant lion and ant;
e) jackal and vulture.
(Answer: e.)
6.
A. The interaction of two or more individuals, the consequences of which are negative for some, and indifferent for others.
B. The interaction of two or more individuals, in which some use the remains of the food of others without harming them.
B. Mutually beneficial interaction of two or more individuals.
D. The interaction of two or more individuals, in which one provides shelter to the other, and this does not bring harm or benefit to the owner.
D. Cohabitation of two individuals that do not directly interact with each other.
E. The interaction of two or more individuals with similar needs for the same limited resources, which leads to a decrease in the vital indicators of the interacting individuals.
G. The interaction of two or more organisms, in which some feed on living tissues or cells of others and receive from them a place of permanent or temporary residence.
H. The interaction of two or more individuals, in which one eats the other.
(Answer: 1 - B; 2 - D; 3 - E; 4 - A; 5 - G; 6 - B; 7 - F; 8 - Z.)
7.
Why do you think progressive technologies for planting trees in poor soil involve contamination of the soil with certain types of fungi?
(Answer: a symbiotic relationship is formed between these mushrooms and the tree. Mushrooms quickly form a very branched mycelium and braid the roots of trees with their hyphae. Thanks to this, the plant receives water and mineral salts from a huge area of the soil surface. To achieve such an effect without mycelium, the tree would have to spend a lot of time, matter and energy on the formation of such an extensive root system. When planting in a new place, symbiosis with a fungus significantly increases the chances of a tree to take root safely.)
8.*
Name the organisms that are human symbionts. What role do they play?
(Answer: representatives of bacteria and protozoa that live in the human intestine. In 1 g of the contents of the large intestine, there are 250 billion microorganisms. Many substances that enter the human body with food are digested when they are active participation. Without intestinal symbionts, normal development is impossible. A disease in which the number of symbiotic organisms of the intestine decreases is called dysbacteriosis. Microorganisms also live in tissues, cavities and on the surface of human skin.)
9.* The relationship of an adult spruce and a neighboring oak seedling is an example:
(Answer: A.)
Laws and Consequences food relations
1. Match the proposed concepts and definitions:
A. An organism that actively seeks out and kills relatively large prey that can flee, hide, or resist.
B. An organism (usually small in size) that uses the living tissues or cells of another organism as a source of food and habitat.
B. An organism that consumes numerous food objects, usually of plant origin, for which it does not spend much energy searching.
D. An aquatic animal that filters water through itself with numerous small organisms that serve as food for it.
C. An organism that seeks out and eats relatively small, incapable of escaping and resisting food objects.
(Answer: 1 - B; 2 - G; 3 - A; 4 - D; 5 - B.)
2.
Explain why in China in the middle of the twentieth century. following the destruction of sparrows, the grain harvest dropped sharply. After all, sparrows are grain-eating birds.
(Answer: adult sparrows feed mainly on seeds, but chicks need protein food for their development. Feeding offspring, sparrows collect a huge number of insects, including pests of crops. The destruction of sparrows caused pest outbreaks, which led to a reduction in crops.)
Laws of competitive relations in nature
1.
For each proposed pair of organisms, select a resource (from the following) for which they can compete: lily of the valley - pine, field mouse - common vole, wolf - fox, perch - pike, buzzard - tawny owl, badger - fox, rye - cornflower blue, saxaul - camel thorn, bumblebee - bee.
Resources: burrow, nectar, wheat seeds, water, hares, light, small roach, potassium ions, small rodents.
(Answer: lily of the valley and pine - potassium ions; field mouse and common vole - wheat seeds; the wolf and the fox are hares; perch and pike - small roach; buzzard and tawny owl are small rodents; badger and fox - hole; rye and cornflower - light; saxaul and camel thorn - water; bumblebee and bee - nectar.)
2.*
Closely related species often live together, although it is generally accepted that there is the most intense competition between them. Why, in these cases, is there no displacement by one species of another?
(Answer: 1 - very often closely related species living together occupy different ecological niches (they differ in the composition of their preferred food, in the way they obtain food, use different microhabitats, are active in different time days); 2 - competition may be absent if the resource for which the species compete is in excess; 3 - displacement does not occur if the number of a competitively stronger species is constantly limited by a predator or a third competitor; 4 - in an unstable environment in which conditions are constantly changing, they can alternately become favorable for one or another species.)
3.*
In nature, Scotch pine forms forests on relatively poor soils in swampy or, conversely, dry places. Planted by human hands, it grows well on rich soils with medium moisture, but only if a person takes care of the plantings. Explain why this happens.
(Answer: usually under these conditions, other types of trees win in competition (depending on the conditions, these can be aspen, linden, maple, elm, oak, spruce, etc.). When caring for plantings, a person weakens the competitive power of these species by weeding, cutting down, etc.)
Populations
1. Choose a value that estimates the population density index of a population:
a) 20 individuals;
b) 20 individuals per hectare;
c) 20 individuals per 100 breeding females;
d) 20%;
e) 20 individuals per 100 traps;
e) 20 individuals per year.
(Answer: b.)
2. Choose a value that estimates the birth rate (or death rate) of the population of the population:
a) 100 individuals;
b) 100 individuals per year;
c) 100 individuals per hectare;
d) 100.
(Answer: b.)
3. White hares and brown hares living in the same territory are:
a) one population of one species;
b) two populations of two species;
c) two populations of the same species;
d) one population of different species.
(Answer: b.)
4.
On an area of 100 km2, forest felling was carried out annually. At the time of the organization of the reserve, 50 moose were noted in this territory. After 5 years, the number of moose increased to 650 heads. After another 10 years, the number of moose decreased to 90 and stabilized in subsequent years at the level of 80–110 heads.
Determine the density of the moose population: a) at the time of the creation of the reserve; b) 5 years after the creation of the reserve; c) 15 years after the creation of the reserve. Explain why the number of moose first increased sharply, and then fell and stabilized later.
(Answer: a – 0.5 individuals/km2; b – 6.5 individuals/km2; c – 0.9 individuals/km2. The number of moose has increased due to protection in the reserve. Later, the number decreased, since logging is prohibited in the reserves. This led to the fact that after 15 years, small trees growing on old clearings grew, and the food supply of elk decreased.)
5.
The hunters found that in the spring, 8 sables lived on an area of 20 km2 of the taiga forest, of which 4 were females (adult sables do not form permanent pairs). Every year, one female brings an average of three cubs. The average mortality of sables (adults and calves) at the end of the year is 10%. Determine the number of sables at the end of the year; density in spring and at the end of the year; mortality rate per year; birth rate per year.
(Answer: the number of sables at the end of the year is 18 individuals; spring density - 0.4 individuals / km2; density at the end of the year 0.9 individuals/km2; mortality rate per year - 2 individuals (according to calculations - 1.8, but the real value, of course, will always be expressed as a whole number); birth rate per year - 12 individuals.)
6.*
Is the population: a) a group of cheetahs in the Moscow Zoo; b) a family of wolves; c) perches in the lake; d) wheat in the field; e) snails of the same species in one mountain gorge; e) bird market; g) brown bears on Sakhalin Island; h) a herd (family) of deer; i) red deer in the Crimea; j) a colony of rooks; k) all spruce plants? Justify the answer.
(Answer: yes - c, e, f, i. A population is a group of individuals of the same species, interconnected, living in the same territory for a long time (several generations). A population is a natural grouping that has a specific sex, age, and spatial structure.)
7.*
How can one explain the fact that if in a fight between two (non-fighting) dogs one turns its unprotected neck, the other does not grab it, while in a fight between a lynx and a dog such behavior will be fatal for the dog that turned its neck?
(Answer: aggression between individuals of the same species, as a rule, is aimed at maintaining the hierarchical and spatial structure of the population, and not at the destruction of fellow tribesmen. A population, like a species, is a single whole, and the well-being of one individual largely determines the well-being of the population, species. The lynx will simply eat the dog.)
8.*
In the forest, scientists evenly placed traps for white hares. A total of 50 animals were caught. They were marked and released. A week later, the capture was repeated. We caught 70 hares, of which 20 were already tagged. Determine the number of hares in the study area, assuming that the animals marked for the first time were evenly distributed throughout the forest.
(Answer: 50 marked individuals were to be distributed among the total number of hares (X) living in the study area. Their share in the resampling should also reflect their share in the total population, i.e. 50 is to X like 20 is to 70.
Let's solve the proportion:
50: X = 20: 70; X \u003d 70x 50: 20 \u003d 175.
Thus, the estimated number of hares in the study area is 175 individuals.
This method (Lincoln index, or Petersen index) is used to determine the number of secretive animals that cannot be directly counted. The result of the calculations may have a fractional value, but it must be remembered that the real number of animals is always expressed as an integer value. Besides, this method has its own errors, which must also be taken into account. It is more logical to talk, for example, about the number of 170-180 individuals.)
Demographic structure of the population
1.
Explain why up to 30% of individuals can be removed from the wild boar population without the risk of destroying it, while the permissible shooting of elk should not exceed 15% of the population?
(Answer: the female wild boar on average brings from 4 to 8 (sometimes up to 15) piglets, and the female elk - 1-2. Therefore, the recovery of the wild boar population is proceeding at a faster pace.)
2.
Which organisms have a simple and which have a complex age structure of populations?
(Answer: a simple age structure of populations is distinguished by organisms whose life cycle does not exceed one year, and reproduction occurs once in a lifetime and is timed to seasonal changes in the environment. These are, for example, annual plants, a number of insect species, etc. Otherwise, the age structure of populations can be complex.)
3.
Explain why a significant spring death of adult shrews will lead to a sharp and prolonged decline in the population, while the complete destruction of all adult May beetles that emerged in spring will not lead to a similar result.
(Answer: the population of shrews in spring is represented exclusively by adult animals of the last year of birth. May beetles, whose larvae develop in the soil for 3–4 years, have a complex age structure of the population. When adults die one spring the next year, they will be replaced by beetles that have developed from another generation of larvae.)
4. Build age pyramids for Russia (140 million) and Indonesia (190 million) using the data provided.
5 *. What are the factors that encourage people in agrarian societies to have more children and less in industrial ones?
(Answer: see table.)
6 *. Why do scientists believe that a population explosion in the south can lead to catastrophic environmental consequences for the entire planet?
(Answer: explosive population growth causes severe environmental consequences: pressure on local ecosystems (deforestation, depletion and soil erosion, drying up of water bodies, desertification), food shortages, local wars, impoverishment, social upheavals, mass migrations of the population.)
7*. In paragraph 4 (see "Biology", No16/2002) you had to build the age pyramids of the population of Russia and Indonesia according to the table. Compare the built pyramids and answer the questions.
A. Which country's population is growing?
B. Which country's population is stable and declining?
Q. Why in the age pyramid of the population of Russia, the group from 51 to 60 years old has a smaller number than the neighboring groups?
D. The population of which country is close to a simple replacement of the size of one generation by another?
E. Calculate the share (in %) of young people (age 0-30) in Russia and Indonesia.
E. Which country has the highest demographic potential?
(Answer: A - Indonesia; B - Russia; B - people of this group were born in the 40-50s. At that time, due to war, famine and devastation, the country had a high mortality rate for the reproductive part of the population, so the proportion of births was significantly lower than in previous and subsequent decades (30–40s and 50–60s). G - Russia; D - in Russia 46%, in Indonesia 62%; E - in Indonesia.)
Population Growth and Density
1. Which environment will be more capacious (choose the correct answer):
a) for wheat - irrigated field, forest, meadow, wasteland, clearing, field;
b) for a beaver - a river flowing through the steppe; a river flowing through a spruce forest; a river flowing through an aspen forest; a river flowing through the tundra;
c) for the Colorado potato beetle - coniferous forest, meadow, potato field;
d) for perch - a lake, a swamp, an underground reservoir;
e) for the red cockroach - forest, clean room, field, kitchen;
f) for great tits - a field, a lake, a forest, a forest with feeders.
(Answer: a) an irrigated field; b) a river flowing through an aspen forest; c) potato field; d) lake; e) kitchen; e) forest with feeders.)
2. Plot a graph of population growth on the globe. Until the nineteenth century it grew slowly and in 1700 amounted to 0.6 billion people. The first billion was crossed in 1830, the second in 1939, the third in 1960, the fourth in 1975, the fifth in 1987. In 1994, the number of people on Earth reached 5.5 billion , and in 1998 - 5.9 billion.
3. The explosive growth of the world population in the second half of the twentieth century. happened due to:
a) an increase in the birth rate;
b) reducing the mortality rate due to improved nutrition and sanitary and hygienic living conditions;
c) industrial revolution;
d) use of new energy sources;
e) improvements women's education.
(Answer: b.)
4. Cancer has a weaker impact on human demographics than cholera or AIDS because:
a) they affect mainly older people (post-reproductive generation);
b) relatively few people die from these diseases;
c) they are more easily dealt with by modern medicine.
(Answer: A.)
5. Statistics show that more than 80% of cancers are caused by environmental factors. The share distribution of the causes of human cancer is as follows: smoking - 30%, food chemicals - 35%, adverse working conditions - 5%, alcohol - 3%, radiation - 3%, air and water pollution - 2%, other reasons - 5%, reasons not related to the influence of the environment - 17%. Every year, 5.9 million new cases of cancer are registered in the world and 3.4 million patients die. Calculate how many people in the world die each year from cancer caused by smoking.
(Answer: 1.02 million people.)
6 *. In the 70s. nineteenth century 9 mongooses were brought to the West Indian Islands to fight the breeding rats - pests of sugarcane plantations. The animals took root and began to multiply. Over time, the number of mongooses increased to hundreds of thousands. There were fewer rats, but local species of frogs, birds, lizards, and crabs began to disappear along with them. Against this background, insects feeding on sugar cane multiplied significantly. Why do you think people did not get the expected effect from the acclimatization of mongooses and the increase in the yield of reeds? Why has the mongoose population skyrocketed? Why did insects that feed on sugarcane multiply?
(Answer: acclimatized mongooses in the new conditions received a more capacious environment than at home. There were no significant regulators of their numbers on the islands, as a result of which it increased significantly. Mongooses began to consume not only rats, but also other animals (often more accessible), which, in turn, were natural enemies of sugar cane pests.)
Population size and its regulation in nature
1. More stable dynamics numbers are of the following types:
a) with a simple age structure;
b) with a complex age structure;
c) with a variable age structure.
(Answer: b.)
2. From the examples given, select those that describe cases where invasive species in new territories, without encountering regulatory enemies, gave an explosion in numbers: American maple in Europe, Colorado potato beetles in Europe, rabbits in Australia, budgerigars in Europe, corn in Europe , house sparrows in America, Canadian elodea in Europe, Canadian blue spruce in the Old World.
(Answer: Colorado potato beetles in Europe, rabbits in Australia, house sparrows in America, Canadian elodea in Europe.)
3.
Build a graph of changes in the harvest of white hare skins in the north of the European part of Russia consecutively for 27 years (the volume of harvests is given in points).
Points: 2, 1, 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 15, 30, 80, 100, 60, 55, 0, 1, 1, 1, 2, 8, 90, 100, 100, 130, 10, 2, 1, 2.
How many years does one cycle last in the population dynamics of the white hare?
(Answer: about 12 years old.)
Biocenosis and its stability
1. The scientist who substantiated the doctrine of biocenoses (choose the correct answer):
a) V. Johansen;
b) K. Möbius;
c) C. Elton;
d) K. Timiryazev.
(Answer: b . )
2. Biocenosis is a set of organisms:
a) one species living in a certain territory;
b) different species living together and connected with each other;
c) one species living in heterogeneous parts of the range;
d) living in the same biogeographic region.
(Answer: b . )
3. A pit was dug on the farm and filled with water. Is it possible to immediately settle fish in it and wait for the growth of their numbers without feeding?
(Answer: it is impossible, since the necessary conditions for the life of fish are not provided in it: there are no plants, food, places of shelter.)
4. The ecological niche of a species is:
a) the habitat of the species;
b) the territory in which the species lives;
c) the space occupied by the view;
d) the position of the species in the community and the complex of habitat conditions.
(Answer: G.)
5 *. What abiotic factor determines the vertical structure of biocenoses. Why?
(Answer: first of all light. Plants are the main environment-formers in biocenoses, and their vertical distribution is determined by the degree of illumination.)
6 *. Calculate the similarity index of two phytocenoses (plant components of biocenoses) using the Jaccard formula:
K \u003d C x 100% / (A + B) - C,
where A is the number of species of this group in the first community, B is the number of species of this group in the second community, and C is the number of species common to two communities. The index is expressed as a percentage of similarity.
The first phytocenosis is blueberry pine forest: Scotch pine, blueberry, lingonberry, green moss, two-leaved majnik, European seven-leaf, May lily of the valley, creeping goodyear, round-leaved wintergreen.
The second phytocenosis is a pine forest-cowberry-green moss: Scots pine, lingonberry, green moss, May lily of the valley, wintergreen, winter love, common heather, cuckoo, club moss.
7*.
Calculate the similarity index of two phytocenoses (plant components of biocenoses) using the Jaccard formula (see the previous task): the first is located in the reserve, the other is in the neighboring forest where people rest.
List of species of the first phytocenosis: pedunculate oak, linden, hazel, hairy sedge, male fern, Schultes' bedstraw, common gout.
List of disturbed phytocenosis species: common oak, domestic apple tree, linden, medicinal dandelion, large plantain, hairy sedge, wild strawberry, common goutweed, stinging nettle, mountaineer bird, large burdock, succession.
Write down the names of species that have disappeared from the oak forest community under the influence of trampling. Write down the names of the species that appeared in the oak forest due to trampling and other processes that accompany people's rest in the forest. Using additional literature, write down against each species name its brief ecological characteristics (preferred biotopes, attitude to anthropogenic factors, etc.)
(Answer: A=7; B=12; C=4. The Jaccard similarity index is 26.6%. As a result of trampling, hazel, male fern, and Schultes' bedstraw disappeared from the community. New species that appeared after the anthropogenic change in the community: domestic apple tree, medicinal dandelion, large plantain, wild strawberry, dioica nettle, highlander bird, large burdock, succession. Disappeared species - typically forest; appeared - weedy and meadow.)
CHAPTER 3. ECOSYSTEMS Laws of organization of ecosystems
1. The scientist is the founder of biogeocenology:
a) E. Haeckel;
b) V. Sukachev;
c) V. Dokuchaev;
d) K. Timiryazev;
e) K. Möbius.
(Answer: b.)
2. The scientist who introduced the concept of "ecosystem" into science:
a) A. Tensley;
b) V. Dokuchaev;
c) K. Möbius;
d) V. Johansen.
(Answer: A . )
3. Fill in the gaps with the names of the functional groups of the ecosystem and the kingdoms of living beings.
Organisms that consume organic matter and processing it into new forms, they call .... They are represented mainly by species belonging to ... the world. Organisms that consume organic matter and completely decompose it into mineral compounds are called .... They are represented by species belonging to ... and ... . Organisms that consume mineral compounds and, using external energy, synthesize organic substances are called .... They are represented mainly by species belonging to ... the world.
(Answers(successively): consumers, animals, decomposers, fungi and bacteria, producers, plants.)
4. All living beings on Earth exist thanks to organic matter, mainly produced by:
a) mushrooms
b) bacteria;
c) animals;
d) plants.
(Answer: G.)
5. Insert missing words.
A community of organisms of different species, closely interconnected and inhabiting a more or less homogeneous area, is called .... It consists of: plants, animals ... and ... . The totality of organisms and components of inanimate nature, united by the circulation of substances and the flow of energy into a single natural complex, is called ..., or ....
(Answers(successively): biocenosis, fungi and bacteria, ecosystem, or biogeocenosis.)
6. Of the listed organisms, the producers include:
a) a cow
b) white mushroom;
c) red clover;
d) a person.
(Answer: c.)
7. Select from the list the names of animals that can be attributed to consumers of the second order: gray rat, elephant, tiger, dysenteric amoeba, scorpion, spider, wolf, rabbit, mouse, locust, hawk, guinea pig, crocodile, goose, fox, perch, antelope , cobra, steppe turtle, grape snail, dolphin, Colorado potato beetle, bull tapeworm, kangaroo, ladybug, polar bear, honey bee, blood-sucking mosquito, dragonfly, codling moth, aphid, gray shark.
(Answer: gray rat, tiger, dysentery amoeba, scorpion, spider, wolf, hawk, crocodile, fox, perch, cobra, dolphin, tapeworm, ladybug, polar bear, blood-sucking mosquito, dragonfly, gray shark.)
8. From the listed names of organisms, select producers, consumers and decomposers: bear, bull, oak, squirrel, boletus, wild rose, mackerel, toad, tapeworm, putrefactive bacteria, baobab, cabbage, cactus, penicillium, yeast.
(Answer: producers - oak, wild rose, baobab, cabbage, cactus; consumers - bear, bull, squirrel, mackerel, toad, tapeworm; decomposers - boletus, putrefactive bacteria, penicillium, yeast.)
9. In an ecosystem, the main flow of matter and energy is transmitted:
(Answer: V . )
10 *. Explain why the existence of life on Earth would be impossible without bacteria and fungi.
(Answer: fungi and bacteria are the main decomposers in the Earth's ecosystems. They decompose dead organic matter into inorganic matter, which is then consumed by green plants. Thus, fungi and bacteria support the cycle of elements in nature, and hence life itself.)
11 *. Explain why it is economically advantageous to keep herbivorous fish in cooling ponds at thermal power plants.
(Answer: these ponds are heavily overgrown with aquatic vegetation, as a result, the water in them stagnates, which disrupts the cooling of the waste water. Fish eat all vegetation and grow well.)
12 *. Name the organisms that are producers but do not belong to the Plant Kingdom.
(Answer: photosynthetic flagellate protozoa (for example, green euglena), chemosynthetic bacteria, cyanobacteria.
13*. Organisms that are not absolutely necessary to maintain a closed cycle of biogenic elements (nitrogen, carbon, oxygen, etc.):
a) producers;
b) consumers;
c) reducers.
(Answer: b.)
Laws of biological productivity
1. Determine the correct pasture food chain:
a) leopard - gazelle - grass;
b) clover - hare - eagle - frog;
c) humus - earthworm - shrew - ermine;
d) grass - green grasshopper - frog - already.
(Answer: G.)
2. Make five food chains. All of them should start with plants (their parts) or dead organic residues (detritus). The intermediate link in the first case should be an earthworm; in the second, a mosquito larva in a fresh water body; in the third - a house fly; in the fourth - the larva of the cockchafer; in the fifth - infusoria shoe. All food chains must end with a person. Suggest the longest chain options. Why does the number of links not exceed 6–7?
(Answer options:
1) dandelion - detritus - earthworm - chicken - man;
2) detritus - mosquito larva - small roach - perch - pike - man;
3) detritus - housefly larva (adult fly) - dragonfly - chub - human;
4) pine (roots) - Maybug larva - wild boar - man;
5) detritus - ciliates slipper - crucian fry - water dragonfly larva - diving duck - man.
Only about 10% of the energy of the previous level passes to each subsequent trophic level. Therefore, the total amount of energy in food chains is rapidly falling.)
3. Name the animals that in food chains can take the place of consumers (consumers) of both the first and second or even third order.
(Answer: man, brown bear, gray rat, chimpanzee, gray crow, wild boar, etc.)
4. Name the plants that can take the place of both the producer and the consumer of the second order.
(Answer: sundew, buttercup, venus flytrap, pemphigus vulgaris and other insectivorous plants.)
5. Specify pasture (1) and detritus (2) food chains:
a) diatoms - mayfly larva - caddis larva;
b) brown algae - coastal snail - oystercatcher;
c) a dead animal - a larva of a carrion fly - a grass frog - an ordinary one;
d) nectar - fly - spider - shrew - owl;
e) cow litter - fly larva - starling - sparrowhawk;
f) leaf litter - earthworm - shrew - ermine.
(Answer: 1 – a, b, d; 2 - c, e, f.)
6. Of the total amount of energy transferred in the food web from one trophic level to another, approximately 10%:
a) initially comes from the sun;
b) is consumed in the process of respiration;
c) goes to the construction of new tissues;
d) turns into useless heat;
e) excreted in excrement.
(Answer: V.)
7. In pond farms, it is more profitable to grow silver carps, not pikes, because:
a) silver carps grow faster;
b) pikes die more often from diseases and adverse conditions;
c) silver carps eat energetically cheap plant food, and pikes eat expensive, animal food.
(Answer: V . )
8. Is a substance used repeatedly or once in the biogenic cycle? Is energy used repeatedly or once in the biogenic cycle?
(Answer: substance repeatedly; energy once.
9. Approximately 10% of the energy stored in the body passes to the next trophic level. Explain where the remaining 90% is spent.
(Answer: 90% of the energy is spent on maintaining the vital activity of the organisms that make up the previous level.)
10. On land, the least productive ecosystems are located in:
a) tropical forests
b) temperate forests;
c) steppes and savannahs;
d) arctic deserts;
e) subtropical forests;
e) hot deserts;
g) mountains above 3000 m.
(Answer: d, f, g.)
11. The highest increase in primary production in aquatic ecosystems has (select the correct answers):
a) lakes of temperate latitudes;
b) ocean waters of temperate latitudes;
c) subtropical ocean waters;
d) ocean waters of the tropics;
e) mouths of rivers in hot regions of the Earth;
f) oceanic shallow coral reefs.
(Answer: d, e.)
12 *. Name the organisms that should or could be in place of gaps in the description of food chains:
a) flower nectar - fly -? - titmouse - ?;
b) wood -? - woodpecker;
c) leaves - cuckoo;
d) seeds - viper - stork;
e) grass - grasshopper -? - really -?.
(Answer options: a) a spider and a hawk, b) a barbeled larva, c) a butterfly caterpillar, d) a mouse, a frog, e) a snake-eagle.)
13 *. It is known that many chemicals created by man (for example, agricultural poisons) are poorly excreted from a living organism in a natural way. Explain why animals of the upper trophic levels (predators, man himself) will suffer the most from these compounds, and not the lower ones.
(Answer: due to the accumulation and increase in the concentration of poorly excreted substances during the transition from one trophic level to another.)
14. Knowing the ten percent rule, calculate how much grass you need to grow one eagle weighing 5 kg (food chain: grass - hare - eagle). Conditionally accept that at each trophic level only representatives of the previous level are always eaten.
(Answer: 500 kg grass.)
15. Knowing the ten percent rule, calculate how much phytoplankton is needed to grow one pike weighing 10 kg (food chain: phytoplankton - zooplankton - small fish - perch - pike). Conditionally accept that at each trophic level only representatives of the previous level are always eaten.
(Answer: 100,000 kg or 100 tons of phytoplankton.)
16. Knowing the ten percent rule, calculate how much phytoplankton will be needed to grow one bear weighing 300 kg (food chain: phytoplankton - zooplankton - small fish - salmon - bear). Conditionally accept that at each trophic level only representatives of the previous level are always eaten.
(Answer: 3,000,000 kg or 3,000 tons of phytoplankiton.)
17 *. The coral reef is more productive than most areas open ocean near the equator because this ecosystem receives more (choose the correct answer):
a) sunlight
b) batteries;
c) water;
d) heat.
(Answer: b.)
31*. If in a forest on an area of 1 ha, we weigh separately all insects, all plants and all predatory vertebrates (amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals combined), then representatives of which group will weigh the most in total? Least of all? Why?
(Answer: The largest biomass will be in plants, the smallest - in representatives of the last link - predators.)
32. The weight of a female of one of the species of insect-eating bats does not exceed 5 grams. The weight of each of her two newborn cubs is 1 gram. For a month of feeding the cubs with milk, the weight of each of them reaches 4.5 grams. Based on the rule of the ecological pyramid, determine how much insects the female must consume during this time in order to feed her offspring. What is the mass of plants that is preserved due to the extermination of herbivorous insects by the female? (*)
(Answer: we make up a food chain: plants - herbivorous insects - a bat. Calculate the mass gained by bat cubs after birth: 4.5 g - 1 g = 3.5 g; 3.5 x 2 \u003d 7 (g) We substitute the value of 7 g into the food chain diagram and get the answers: herbivorous insects - 70 g, plants - 700 g.)
How can one explain the large difference in daily energy requirements (per unit body mass) between humans and small birds or small mammals? (**)
(Answer: in small birds and mammals, the ratio of body surface to its volume is greater than in humans, so they lose heat faster. Accordingly, to maintain a constant body temperature, they must consume more energy.)
17 *. The productivity of a coral reef is higher than that of most areas of the open ocean near the equator because this ecosystem receives more:
a) sunlight
b) batteries;
c) water;
d) heat.
(Answer: b.)
18*. If in a forest on an area of 1 ha we weigh separately all insects, all plants and all predatory vertebrates (amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals combined), then the representatives of which group will weigh the most in total; least of all? Explain the answer.
(Answer: The largest biomass will be in plants, the smallest - in representatives of the last link - predators.)
19. The weight of a female of one of the species of insect-eating bats does not exceed 5 g. The weight of each of her two newborn cubs is 1 g. During the month of feeding the cubs with milk, the weight of each of them reaches 4.5 g. Based on the rule of the ecological pyramid, determine which the mass of insects must be consumed by the female during this time in order to feed her offspring. What is the mass of plants that is preserved due to the extermination of herbivorous insects by the female?
(Answer: make up the food chain: plants - herbivorous insects - bat. We calculate the mass gained by the bat cubs after birth: 4.5 g - 1 g = 3.5 g; 3.5 x 2 = 7 (g). We substitute the value of 7 g in the food chain diagram and get the answers: herbivorous insects - 70 g, plants - 700 g.)
20.* How can one explain the large difference in daily energy requirements (per unit body mass) between humans and small birds or small mammals?
(Answer: in small birds and mammals, the ratio of body surface to its volume is greater than in humans, so they lose heat faster. Accordingly, to maintain a constant body temperature, they must consume more energy.)
Agrocenoses and agroecosystems
1. Insert missing words.
Agrocenosis is an artificial ..., resulting from .... Agrocenoses can exist only at constant costs ... on the part of man.
(Answer: biocenosis, human activities, energy.)
2. It is noted that in agrocenoses the number of species – consumers of plants during mass outbreaks of reproduction many times exceeds their number in natural biocenoses. It's connected with:
a) increased productivity of agrocenoses;
b) growth in vast territories of monocultures;
c) alternation of different agrocenoses from year to year in one territory;
d) high biological diversity of agrocenoses.
(Answer: b.)
3. Often, the use of chemicals (pesticides) against agricultural pests causes an even greater outbreak of their numbers the next year. This is because modern pesticides:
(Answer: b.)
4. Give examples of agrocenoses. Name the agrocenoses that can be found in your area.
(Answer: these can be fields with various crops, hay meadows, grazing meadows (pastures), artificial fish ponds, orchards, plantations of vegetables, berries, medicinal plants, plantations of marine animals, farms, etc.)
5.* Substances used in agriculture to kill insects are called:
a) herbicides;
b) phytoncides;
c) fungicides;
d) insecticides.
(Answer: G.)
6.* How does the thickness (thickness) of the soil in natural zones change from the tundra through the forest zone to the steppes and further to the deserts?
(Answer: from the tundra to the steppes, the thickness of the soil increases on average, from the steppe to the desert it drops sharply.)
7.* In the summer, in ponds and small lakes located next to fields that were intensively treated with nitrogen fertilizers, almost all the fish died. It was found that death was due to lack of oxygen. Explain this phenomenon.
(Answer: nitrogenous fertilizers were washed away from the fields into nearby water bodies during the rain. An increased concentration of water-soluble nitrogen compounds caused rapid reproduction of algae and cyanobacteria. As these organisms die, they decompose. The decomposition process is associated with the consumption of a large amount of oxygen. Thus, the lack of oxygen in pools of stagnant water caused the death of the fish.)
8.* In order to survive, the common toad needs to eat 5 g of slugs per day - pests of crops. About 10 toads live on an area of 1 ha. Calculate the mass of pests that toads will destroy in a small field of 10 hectares during the warm season (from May to the end of September - 150 days).
(Answer: 75 kg.)
9.* Ecologists are convinced that the use of more productive varieties of agricultural plants and animal breeds solves not only economic but also environmental problems. Why?
(Answer: in this case, from the same area of agricultural land, a person will receive more products, therefore, the capacity of the environment will increase. Accordingly, to increase the amount of products received, there is no need to develop new territories, therefore, part of the existing agricultural territories can be vacated and re-occupied by natural communities.)
Self-development of ecosystems - successions
1. Among the listed changes in ecosystems, select cyclic (A) and progressive (B): 1) leaf fall; 2) overgrowing of the lake; 3) flowering of plants; 4) swamp overgrowth with shrubs; 5) seasonal bird migrations.
(Answer: A - 1, 3, 5; B - 2, 4.)
2. Describe what changes will occur with a stagnant lake, which becomes shallower from year to year. Can changes in the lake be called succession? Will this change the composition of organisms and the productivity of the ecosystem? Will this process be fully observed in a flowing lake and why?
(Answer: the stagnant lake will gradually overgrow. In tens of years, a terrestrial ecosystem will appear on the site of the lake. This process is succession. The composition of organisms and the productivity of ecosystems change during succession. In a flowing lake, this process will not be fully observed, because most of the organic matter is washed out of it.)
3. What will happen to a plowed field in a forest zone in a few years if a person stops cultivating cultivated plants on it?
(Answer: it will be overgrown first with meadow plants, and then with a forest.)
4. It will take about 100-150 years to restore the spruce forest on the plain after felling. The same process on steep mountain slopes takes 500-1000 years. It's connected with:
a) the absence in the mountains of plant species of intermediate stages of spruce forest restoration;
b) special weather conditions of the mountains;
c) soil flushing after logging.
(Answer: V.)
5. How should forests be cut in the mountains in order to shorten the natural recovery time of the spruce forest?
(Answer: you can not cut wood on steep slopes. On less steep ones, it is necessary to cut in small plots, leaving seed trees on them. Immediately after felling, plant trees, preferably manually, without the use of machinery.)
6. What minerals of biogenic origin appeared due to an imbalance in the circulation of substances in ecosystems?
(Answer: peat, coal, oil, limestone, natural gas. All minerals of biogenic origin are the result of the accumulation of substances that have fallen out of the natural cycle for one reason or another.)
7. Is the statement correct:
a) the main reason for the self-development of ecosystems (succession) is the imbalance of the cycle of substances;
b) in the course of self-development of ecosystems, the species composition does not change;
c) the overgrowing of a stagnant lake is called the self-development of an ecosystem (succession);
d) species that make up ecosystems are not able to change the environment in the course of their life activity;
e) mature communities are internally stable;
f) unstable stages when changing ecosystems are called immature communities;
g) in mature communities, everything that producers produce is consumed by consumers, and in immature communities, part of the organic matter is removed from the cycle;
h) are factors external to ecosystems unable to bring mature communities out of a stable state?
(Answer: yes - a, c, e, f, g; no - b, d, h.)
8.* Explain why plant species alien to local ecosystems grow, as a rule, in disturbed places: roadsides, landfills, river banks, abandoned construction sites, soil dumps, sometimes animals, pasture and hay meadows, agrocenoses, etc. Why can't you meet them in undisturbed communities?
(Answer:"newcomers", as a rule, are worse adapted to local conditions than long-living and co-evolving species here. Therefore, the latter are more competitively strong. In disturbed communities, the competitive power of local species is weakened due to external forces or these species are simply destroyed. This allows "aliens" to settle in such places.)
9.* Answer the question and justify which succession is longer (in all cases it ends with a forest stage):
a) overgrowing of abandoned arable land;
b) overgrowing of a forest fire;
c) overgrowing of clearing;
d) overgrowing of dumps of soil during the extraction of minerals;
e) overgrowing of an abandoned forest road.
(Answer: d. On dumps, unlike other options, there is no soil, the formation of which should take a long time . )
10.* In the spruce forest, located upstream of the flat river, which was blocked by a hydroelectric dam, the grass cover began to change. At first, under the canopy of fir trees, oxalis, mainik and sedmichnik grew. Gradually, they were replaced by blueberries and green moss, later moisture-loving grass lightning and cuckoo flax moss appeared. The firs began to die and fall out. Spruce seedlings died at the early stages of development. Gradually, cuckoo flax was replaced by sphagnum. Why did these changes take place? Can they be called the succession of the spruce ecosystem? What will happen to the spruce forest in the future?
(Answer: these changes occurred due to an increase in the level of groundwater, which led to changes in the species composition of plants, animals, fungi and bacteria - those species for which the new conditions are more favorable began to prevail. With the intensification of the flooding process, the spruce forest will eventually turn into a swamp. Since the cause that causes these changes is due to a force external to the original ecosystem, this process cannot be called succession.)
Biological diversity as the main condition for the stability of populations, biocenoses and ecosystems
1. The natural community (for example, in the lingonberry pine forest) includes:
a) thousands of species of organisms;
b) several types;
c) millions of species;
d) billions of species.
(Answer: A.)
2.
a) a full-fledged species composition of the community is the basis for the stability of the ecosystem;
b) mutual complementarity of plant species in ecosystems contributes to a more complete use of solar energy;
c) in the community, species cannot functionally replace each other;
d) ecosystems are not capable of self-regulation;
e) the more diverse and complex the structure of an ecosystem, the worse its regulatory abilities;
f) does the diversity of species in ecosystems ensure the reliability of their functioning?
(Answer: yes - a, b, e; no - c, d, e.)
Biosphere
1. The doctrine of the biosphere was created by:
a) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
b) Louis Pasteur;
c) Vasily Vasilyevich Dokuchaev;
d) Alexey Nikolaevich Severtsov;
e) Vladimir Nikolaevich Sukachev;
f) Vladimir Ivanovich Vernadsky;
g) Nikolai Ivanovich Vavilov.
(Answer: e.)
2. Biosphere is:
a) the shell of the Earth in which living beings exist and interact with the environment (or have ever existed and interacted);
b) the shell of the Earth, including part of the lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere;
c) the shell of the Earth in which humanity exists.
(Answer: A.)
3. The layers of the atmosphere are:
a) the stratosphere;
b) troposphere;
c) hydrosphere;
d) ionosphere;
e) lithosphere.
(Answer: a, b, d.)
4. The upper boundary of the biosphere is at the height of:
a) 100–120 m;
b) 1–2 km;
c) 10–12 km;
d) 16–20 km;
e) 100–120 km;
f) 160–200 km.
(Answer: G.)
5. The boundary of the biosphere in the ocean is at a depth of:
a) 100–120 m;
b) 1–2 km;
c) 5–6 km;
d) 10–11 km;
e) 20 km;
e) 100 km.
(Answer: G.)
6. The boundary of the biosphere in the lithosphere is at a depth of:
a) 1–2 m;
b) 10–12 m;
c) 100–120 m;
d) 1 km;
e) 3 km.
(Answer: e.)
7. Are the statements correct (yes or no):
a) 4 billion years ago, at the dawn of the origin of life, there was an atmosphere, hydrosphere and soil;
b) atmospheric nitrogen appeared mainly as a result of volcanic activity;
c) the energy contained in oil, coal, peat is the energy of the sun associated with plants;
d) nuclear energy is the energy of the sun bound by plants and other organisms;
e) the soil is a bio-inert substance, because it consists of mineral components, organic compounds and organisms;
f) the biological cycle of substances in the biosphere - the basis for maintaining stable conditions for the existence of life and mankind;
g) the role of living beings in the destruction and weathering of rocks is insignificant;
h) living beings are not able to change the climate of the planet;
i) the ozone screen arose on Earth due to the vital activity of plants;
j) soil appeared when organisms came to land?
(Answer: yes - c, e, e, i, k; no - a, b, d, g, h.)
8. The biosphere includes:
a) organisms and abiotic environment;
b) only organisms.
(Answer: A.)
9. The energy of the Sun on Earth in one way or another is not spent on:
a) storage in the form of energy chemical bonds in organic substances;
b) heating and evaporation of water masses;
c) the movement of stones from the mountains down;
d) movement of air masses;
e) movement of cars;
f) overcoming gravity during takeoff of a modern spaceship.
(Answer: V.)
10. In what natural processes in the biosphere, occurring with the participation of organisms, binding occurs, and in which - the release of carbon dioxide?
(Answer: binding - in the process of photosynthesis, and release - during respiration, fermentation and putrefaction.)
11. Determine what type of cycle of elements (sedimentary or gas) the cycles of sulfur, nitrogen, oxygen, carbon, phosphorus belong to.
(Answer: the sedimentary cycle of elements includes the cycle of sulfur and phosphorus, the gas cycle - nitrogen, oxygen, carbon).
12. Knowing the laws of migration of elements in the biosphere, arrange the collection sites for medicinal herbs in order of increasing health hazard that may arise when using these plants: in the city, next to highways, next to the railway track, in the forest far from the settlement, next to the village.
(Answer: in the city, next to highways, next to the railway track, next to the village, in the forest far from the settlement.)
13.* Select from the listed organisms those groups that are involved in the formation of carbonate sedimentary rocks:
a) diatoms;
b) fish;
c) foraminifera;
d) birds;
e) animals;
e) shellfish;
g) plants.
(Answer: c, e.)
14. Select from the listed organisms those groups that are involved in the formation of siliceous sedimentary rocks:
a) diatoms;
b) fish;
c) foraminifera;
d) birds;
e) animals;
e) shellfish;
g) plants.
(Answer: A . )
15.* The total content of carbon dioxide in the Earth's atmosphere is about 1100 billion tons. It has been established that in one year vegetation assimilates almost 1 billion tons of carbon. Approximately the same amount is released into the atmosphere. Determine how many years all the carbon in the atmosphere will pass through organisms (the atomic weight of carbon is 12, oxygen is 16).
(Answer: first you need to determine how many tons of carbon are contained in the Earth's atmosphere - 44 tons of carbon dioxide contain 12 tons of carbon, 1100 billion tons of CO2 - 300 billion tons. re-enter the Earth's atmosphere in 300 years.)
CHAPTER 4. ENVIRONMENTAL PROBLEMS AND THEIR SOLUTIONS
Contemporary Issues nature conservation
1. Choose from the list of exhaustible non-renewable natural resources: fish, plants, sea tide energy, wind energy, coal, atmospheric air, birds, oil, ocean waters, fresh water, iron ores, soil, solar energy, copper pyrite, polymetallic ores, natural gas, salt, forests, sunlight, mammals, peat, pearls.
(Answer: coal, oil, iron ores, copper pyrites, polymetallic ores, natural gas, peat.)
2. Arrange the listed energy sources in descending order of their environmental safety: hydroelectric power plants (HPP) on lowland rivers; HPPs on mountain rivers; nuclear power plants; solar stations; thermal power plants (CHP) on coal; CHPP on natural gas; CHP on peat; CHP on fuel oil; tidal power plants; wind power plants.
(Answer: solar stations; wind power plants; tidal power plants; HPPs on mountain rivers; HPPs on lowland rivers; nuclear power plants; CHPP on natural gas; CHP on fuel oil; CHP on coal; CHP on peat.)
3. Urbanization – this is the process:
a) population growth;
b) an increase in the share of the urban population;
c) pollution of the environment with waste;
d) increasing human pressure on the environment.
(Answer: b.)
4.* Why do environmental scientists believe that people who economically spend water, electricity, gas, food, household items actually protect nature?
(Answer: while conserving resources and polluting the environment less.)
5.* Why is forest area declining in most countries?
(Answer: forests are cut down for timber, clearing for fields, pastures, cities, industrial buildings, in the extraction of minerals.)
Current state and protection of the atmosphere
1. The Earth's atmosphere contains 20.95%:
a) nitrogen;
b) oxygen;
c) carbon dioxide;
d) hydrocarbons;
e) argon.
(Answer: b.)
2. The greenhouse effect, caused by an increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, leads to:
a) a decrease in the temperature of the lower layers of the atmosphere;
b) an increase in the temperature of the lower layers of the atmosphere;
c) melting of eternal snows and flooding of low-lying plots of land;
d) poisoning of organisms;
e) an increase in the radiation background on Earth.
(Answer: b, c.)
3. The proportion of what gas in the Earth's atmosphere is increasing due to human activities?
(Answer: carbon dioxide . )
4. Why is the disease rate of trees higher in the city, and their life expectancy is less than in the nearby countryside?
(Answer: this is due to the increased content of harmful compounds in the atmosphere and soil of the city; strong dustiness, which impairs photosynthesis; violation of air and water exchange in the soil during road construction and asphalt laying; soil salinity; mechanical damage to plants; the lack of the required amount of nutrients in the soil due to a violation of the cycle of elements.)
5. The ozone layer is located in:
a) the lower layer of the atmosphere;
b) the upper layer of the atmosphere;
c) the upper layer of the ocean;
d) the depth of the ocean.
(Answer: b.)
6. Why in large cities should the main highways be designed in parallel, and not perpendicular to the direction of the main winds?
(Answer: with the parallel arrangement of highways, the wind blows harmful automobile emissions from the surface layer and reduces their concentration on the roads. Otherwise, harmful substances will be carried from the roads to the built-up area.)
7*. Give a forecast of the state of the environment with a decrease in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(Answer: global cooling, glaciation of the northern and high mountain territories, decrease in precipitation, reduction in the area of the ocean, change in the boundaries of natural zones, desertification of inland territories, decrease in plant productivity.)
8*. Calculations carried out by scientists suggest that in the next 150-180 years the amount of atmospheric oxygen will be reduced by one third compared to the present time. What types of human activities contribute to reducing the proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere?
(Answer: increase in the amount of fuel burned; reduction in the area of forests and vegetation in general; an increase in the area of deserts; pollution of water bodies and the death of aquatic plants.)
9*. Vegetation Western Europe, northeastern United States and some other areas the globe produces many times less oxygen than it is consumed by industry and heterotrophic organisms living in these territories. Why is life preserved in these territories?
(Answer: the preservation of life in these territories is due to the mixing of gases in the atmosphere. Oxygen moves here from other parts of the Earth.)
10*. Consider a table that shows the amount of major pollutants emitted into the atmosphere of Moscow in 1992.
Calculate the amount of pollutants per year (in thousand tons) emitted into the atmosphere of Moscow by transport and stationary sources (factories, factories, etc.). Who pollutes the atmosphere more: transport or stationary sources? How many times? Calculate how many kilograms of atmospheric pollutants per year per inhabitant of Moscow (the population of Moscow is 10 million people).
(Answer: transport emits 911.3 thousand tons of pollutants per year, and industrial stationary sources - 272.8. In total, 1184.1 thousand tons of substances enter the atmosphere of Moscow per year. Transport emits 3.3 times more substances into the atmosphere of Moscow than industry. Approximately 118.4 kg per resident of Moscow per year harmful substances released into the atmosphere of the city.)
Rational use and protection water resources
Scheme. Waste water treatment process
1. Decipher the abbreviations of surfactants, SMS, hydroelectric power stations, nuclear power plants.
(Answer: surfactants; synthetic detergents; hydroelectric power station; nuclear power plant.)
2. List the sectors of the economy that are the main consumers of fresh water.
(Answer: irrigation of agricultural lands, urban economy, metallurgy, chemical industry (production of nylon, rubber, etc.), pulp and paper industry.)
3. List the sectors of the economy that most pollute surface and groundwater.
(Answer: pulp and paper, chemical, metallurgical, oil refining, textile industries; Agriculture.)
4. It is known that the substances that make up oil are mostly insoluble in water and, in comparison with other pollutants, are slightly toxic. Why is water pollution by oil products considered one of the most dangerous?
(Answer: insoluble oil products cover water with a thin film that prevents gas exchange between water and the atmosphere.)
5. Every year, as a result of accidents on oil pipelines and tankers, industrial and transport emissions, washing of cars, ships, tanks and tanker holds, 14 million tons of oil enters the oceans. One gram of oil (petroleum products) is able to form a film on an area of 10 m2 of water surface. Determine the area of annual pollution of world water bodies.
(Answer: 140 million km2.)
6. Greenland ice dated to 800 BC contains 0.0004 micrograms of lead per kg of ice. Ice formed in 1753 contains 25 times more lead; ice formed in 1969 contains 0.2 μg of lead per 1 kg, i.e. 500 times more. Explain how lead gets into the Greenland ice. Why is the lead content in ice rising?
(Answer: lead compounds get into the ice of Greenland mainly with precipitation and dust brought from other regions of the Earth. The development of industry and the economic activity of people leads to a multiple, in comparison with the natural background, an increase in emissions of various substances that spread over long distances from the source of pollution.)
7. Where do agricultural chemicals carried away from fields accumulate?
(Answer: mainly in bodies of water. From the water, these substances enter aquatic plants, invertebrates, fish and other organisms. Through food chains, they can again enter the organisms of terrestrial species. Part chemical substances deposited in silt and river sediments. Some remain in the soil and deep layers of soil.)
8*. What is the advantage of closed water technologies in comparison with the construction of perfect treatment facilities?
(Answer: even the most advanced industrial treatment facilities are not able to completely clean sewage and industrial wastewater. In closed technologies, the water used in production does not enter the environment, so there is no pollution.)
9*. The rafting of felled trees along the rivers is very economically beneficial (no need to build roads, use expensive equipment, etc.). Why are ecologists against such transportation, especially if the trees are not tied into rafts, but are rafted one by one?
(Answer: when rafting, some of the trees drown, litter the banks, settle on the bends of the river, fall to the bottom of the river a large number of bark and parts of fused logs. On many northern rivers of our country, drowned trees line the bottom several meters deep. The decay of this wood and bark is accompanied by the consumption of a large amount of oxygen and the release of various toxic substances. This leads (especially in hot summers) to the mass death of aquatic organisms. In such rivers, fish are gradually disappearing.)
10*. Where can the snow collected on the roads of the city be transported and unloaded (considering the economic and environmental consequences)? Choose the correct answer and justify it:
a) on the field
b) into a river or lake;
c) in a specially dug pit;
d) anywhere.
(Answer: V. Snow collected from roads contains a large amount of harmful substances (petroleum products, acids, salts, rubber, soot and many other compounds). The ingress of these substances into water bodies, fields, forests without natural or artificial purification is dangerous.)
11*. Often along one side of the road passing through the forest, you can see the loss of trees and waterlogging of the soil. Explain why this is happening. How can this situation be corrected in the construction of roads?
(Answer: in such places, a road or path blocks the flow of water (surface or ground). Therefore, swamping begins upstream, which leads to the loss of trees and a change in vegetation. Such phenomena can be avoided by building drainage pipes under the roads.)
Use and protection of subsoil and soil resources
Scheme. Recycling - the use of secondary raw materials
1. Explain why environmentalists believe that the collection of scrap metal and waste paper is an important conservation measure.
(Answer: recycling of raw materials can significantly reduce its removal from nature, especially for non-renewable and limited natural resources. As a result, the burden on nature caused by the extraction of raw materials is reduced, raw materials themselves, energy and human labor are saved, environmental pollution with waste is reduced, etc.)
2. List the non-renewable minerals whose reserves are expected to be more than half depleted in the first half of the 21st century.
(Answer: oil, as well as ores containing nickel, cobalt, lead, zinc, tungsten, silver, copper and others.)
3. How should the soil be tilled (or planted) on a slope to prevent soil erosion (choose the correct answer and justify it):
a) along the slope;
b) across the slope;
c) diagonally.
(Answer: b. This plowing will do the most to prevent washout of bare soil down the slope.)
4*. In the steppe ecosystems, for a long time, the most fertile soils: chernozem and chestnut. In the 50s of the twentieth century. in the USSR and in Canada, the development of virgin lands was carried out: the plowing of steppes for growing wheat and other grain crops on them. Why were some scholars opposed to plowing up the steppes and using them to grow crops? What are the consequences of frequent cultivation (primarily moldboard plowing) of the soil in the steppe?
(Answer: strong winds and frequent droughts in the steppes can lead to the fact that when the soil is exposed during plowing fertile layer will be weathered. In addition, steppe grass and a cushion of last year's withered vegetation create a special microclimate and maintain higher humidity in steppe ecosystems. Frequent tillage (especially plowing) can lead to loss of soil fertility and eventually desertification. Therefore, scientists recommended either abandoning the plowing of the steppe, or carrying out non-moldboard plowing, and not the traditional - moldboard. Over time, the correctness of this point of view was confirmed.)
(Answer: non-moldboard plowing undercuts the upper horizon of the soil, leaving stubble (the remnants of last year's grass) on the surface. Since the stubble does not turn over, the soil is not exposed. This contributes to a sharp decrease in soil erosion.)
The current state and protection of vegetation
1. Explain why on the rivers along which the forest is cut down, the water level is not constant: if there is little precipitation, the level drops significantly; Why do floods rarely occur on forest rivers?
(Answer: forest vegetation reduces the speed of water passage from the catchment area into the rivers hundreds of times. As a result, water (through underground and surface flows) enters the rivers evenly, which excludes floods or shallowing of water flows.)
2. Mudflow is a dangerous natural phenomenon, which is a turbulent mud flow in the mountains, caused by snowmelt or heavy rains. Mudflows carry with them a lot of stones and boulders of enormous size and can produce enormous destruction with human casualties. Why mudflows are practically absent in places where the population is low? Why is the likelihood of mudflows very high in places where forests are cut down in the mountains and (or) domestic animals are grazed?
(Answer: modern human activity in the mountains is associated with deforestation and intensive destruction of vegetation (grazing, construction of roads and structures, etc.). Bare and unprotected soil is easily washed away during heavy floods or heavy rains, which leads to the formation of mudflows. The more intense and uncontrolled human activity in the mountains, the higher the likelihood of mudflows.)
3. Why does it take longer for the snow to melt in the forest than in the field? What does this mean for plants; for the hydro regime of fields, forests, rivers?
(Answer: there is more shade in the forest, so it is cooler. Longer melting of spring snow in the forest allows the soil to accumulate more moisture. The microclimate of the forest contributes to less evaporation - as a result, more water remains in the soil. Prolonged snowmelt does not contribute to the rapid washing of soil and litter, which is observed in the fields.)
4.
a) blue cornflower;
b) May lily of the valley;
c) lady's slipper;
d) medicinal chamomile;
e) Hypericum perforatum.
(Answer: V . )
5. Are the statements correct (yes or no):
a) over the past 10 thousand years, 2/3 of the forests on the planet have been destroyed by man;
b) now the area of felling significantly exceeds the area of planting trees;
c) cut areas of tropical rainforests are quickly restored to their original composition;
d) desertification cannot occur as a result of deforestation;
e) the greatest number of fires occurs due to natural causes;
f) biological control measures are the most ineffective, do not last long;
g) the most effective protection of rare plants in parks and resort areas;
h) listing a species in the Red Book is a signal of a danger that threatens its existence;
i) vegetation, including forests, are non-renewable natural resources;
j) the economic damage caused to the forest by fires exceeds the damage from pests and diseases.
(Answer: "yes" - a, b, h, k; "no" - c, d, e, f, f, i.)
6*. Ecologists believe that in the northern regions the forest can be cut down and taken out only in winter through deep snow. Why?
(Answer: in this case, it is much less disturbed ground cover– the litter and the herbaceous layer of plants are not destroyed, potholes, ruts are not formed that change the hydro regime and contribute to soil erosion. In the northern regions, where the soil layer is formed for a long time and does not reach a significant thickness, compliance with these conditions is of particular importance.)
Rational use and protection of animals
1. The Red Book of Russia contains:
a) pine marten;
b) common hedgehog;
c) sable;
d) Amur tiger;
e) hare-hare.
(Answer: G.)
2. In the reserves it is forbidden:
a) examine animals;
b) collect mushrooms;
c) collect insects for scientific purposes;
d) to catch animals for their ringing.
(Answer: b.)
3. Select from the list the names of animals that were on the verge of extermination, and then saved by man and regained their commercial value:
a) a boar;
b) moose;
c) bison;
d) sable;
e) river European beaver;
f) stone marten;
g) Przewalski's horse;
h) ermine.
(Answer: b, d, e.)
4. In which of the following protected areas is economic activity completely excluded:
a) reserve;
b) a nature reserve;
c) national park;
d) sanitary-resort zone.
(Answer: b.)
5. Are the statements correct (yes or no):
a) animals have only a positive value for humans;
b) there are no harmful or useful animals in nature, each of them is important for nature in its own way;
c) man is guilty of the death of many species of animals;
d) under the influence of man, many species have changed their ranges;
e) for the conservation of rare and endangered species, reserves and sanctuaries are organized;
f) reacclimatization of a species is its relocation to any area suitable for life;
g) The law on hunting prohibits the hunting of rare species.
(Answer:"yes" - b, c, d, e, g; "no" - a, e.)
6. Name examples when a person acclimatized species in new territories, and this led to disastrous results.
(Answer: rabbits, horses, donkeys and camels in Australia; mongooses in the Antilles; goats on many islands; American mink in Europe, etc.)
7. Name domestic animals whose wild ancestors were destroyed by man.
(Answer: cow (ancestor - tour), one-humped camel.)
8. Name domestic animals whose wild ancestors have been preserved.
(Answer: chickens, turkeys, guinea fowls, pigs, dogs, goats, sheep, elephants.)
9. Which of the following methods of increasing the number of game animals is the most effective and why.
a) the introduction of laws restricting fishing;
b) artificial breeding;
c) improvement of habitat conditions and environmental capacity.
(Answer: V . )
10*. In the steppes, before the appearance of man, a large number of herbivores lived. In the North American prairies, 75 million bison and 40 million pronghorn antelopes grazed, not counting rodents. Eurasian grassy bushes ate with appetite tens of millions of aurochs, wild horses and wild asses, 10 million saigas, 5 million gazelles, 20 million marmots, countless hordes of small rodents and large steppe birds: bustards and little bustards. Why did the vast majority of these huge herds disappear from the face of the planet?
(Answer: there is competition between humans and herbivores for land as a resource. Man has destroyed the steppes and prairies, creating pastures for domestic animals and fields for crops. Steppe species, having lost their habitual habitats, either died out, or their numbers decreased significantly. Some steppe species have been directly destroyed by man.)
11*. Among the listed animals there are those that disappeared due to the fault of man, are on the verge of extinction and saved by man from extinction. Distribute the specified species in the appropriate columns of the table.
Saiga, dodo, kulan, Przewalski's horse, tarpan, bison, bison, Steller's cow, polar bear, Indian rhinoceros, elk, blue whale, sperm whale, sea otter, goitered gazelle, tour, passenger pigeon, beaver, sable, elephant tortoise, quagga zebra , muskrat, otter, red-throated goose, Siberian crane, cheetah, bustard, moa (giant ostrich).
Table. The role of man in the fate of some animal species
(Answer: extinct species: dodo, tarpan, Steller's cow, tour, passenger pigeon, quagga zebra, moa. Endangered species: kulan, Przewalski's horse, polar bear, Indian rhinoceros, blue whale, sea otter, goitered gazelle, muskrat, elephant tortoise, cheetah, bustard, Siberian Crane, red-throated goose. Species saved from extinction: saiga, bison, bison, elk, sperm whale, beaver, sable, otter.)
Ecology course test (university program)
1. What is the percentage of nitrogen in the air?
a) 20.93%
b) 0.93%
C) 78.09%
d) 54.13%
2. To which shell of the earth do components such as Earth's crust, mantle, soil layer?
a) atmosphere
b) hydrosphere
c) biosphere
D) lithosphere
3. Which of the environmental factors is not abiotic?
A) deforestation
b) climate
c) relief
d) magnetic field
4. Which of the sections of ecology includes a set of measures aimed at ensuring the preservation of human health and the protection of the natural environment?
a) global ecology
b) human ecology
B) engineering ecology
d) ecology of the people
5. Who is the founder of ecology?
A) E. Haeckel
b) R. Descartes
c) F. Nietzsche
d) Z. Freud
6. What are the names of plants that create organic matter from inorganic with the help of the environment?
A) producers
b) decomposers
c) consumers
d) detritophages
7. Which group of natural resources includes oil, gas, peat?
a) mineral raw materials
B) energy
c) water
d) environmental protection
8. What does not apply to the sources of air pollution?
a) dust storms
b) forest fires
c) volcanic eruption
G) wastewater housing and communal services
9. What is the name of the measure of the dose of radioactive exposure?
a) becquerel
B) rem
c) decay
d) activity
10. Which region of the Russian Federation was not affected by the East Urals radioactive trace?
A) Perm
b) Chelyabinsk
c) Sverdlovsk
d) Kurgan
11. What does not apply to physical environmental pollutants?
a) noise
b) vibration
c) electromagnetic radiation
D) radioactive emissions
11. Which of the presented energy chains is complex?
a) xenobiotic - air - man
B) xenobiotic - soil - plant - man
c) xenobiotic - water - man
d) xenobiotic - food - man
12. Based on what are the maximum allowable emissions of harmful substances calculated (choose the wrong option)?
a) the number of pollution sources
b) the height of the pollution sources
C) the presence of water bodies near sources of pollution
d) distribution of emissions in time and space
13. In what zone of the smoke plume is the maximum concentration of emissions?
a) flare transfer zone
B) smoke zone
c) suffocation zone
d) zone of gradual decrease in the level of pollution
14. How should a residential building be separated from an industrial enterprise?
A) sanitary protection zone
b) a fence
c) a hedge
d) torch transfer zone
15. What equipment does not belong to equipment for gas cleaning by a dry method?
a) cyclones
b) porous-fabric filters
c) electrostatic precipitators
D) scrubber
16. What kind of electrostatic precipitators are there?
a) framework
b) sleeve
c) roll
D) lamellar
17. What process does not apply to mechanical cleaning from suspensions and dispersion-colloidal particles?
a) straining
B) absorption
c) upholding
d) filtering
18. What distance (the length of the sanitary protection zone) should be from a power transmission line with a voltage of 750 kV to protect against electromagnetic fields of the power transmission line?
A) 250m
b) 100m
c) 75m
d) 25m
19. As a result of which production, the impact on the environment does not exceed the level allowed by sanitary and hygienic standards?
a) non-waste
B) low-waste
c) water
d) engineering
20. What class of waste is the most hazardous?
A) 1st grade
b) 2nd grade
c) 3rd grade
d) 4th grade
21. What is secondary energy resources?
a) coal
b) wood fuel
c) electricity
D) heat of combustion products
22. Why can't treated wastewater be used?
a) watering sports facilities
b) fire fighting
B) food preparation
d) sidewalk washing
23. What region is affected by the largest number of radiation hazardous objects?
a) Moscow
B) Chelyabinsk
c) Novosibirsk
d) Tula
24. What is not an object of international legal protection of the natural environment?
a) air pool
b) space
c) Antarctica
D) animal world
25. What percentage of the planet's surface (approximately) is covered by the world's oceans?
a) 20%
b) 40%
C) 70%
d) 90%
26. What does the international environmental organization IAEA do?
A) nuclear safety
b) maritime navigation
c) healthcare
d) world food resources
27. What does not apply to the methods (instruments) of legal protection?
a) ecological expertise
B) environmental forecast
c) environmental audit
d) environmental certification
28. Taking into account what the maximum allowable concentration of chemicals in food is set (select the wrong answer)?
a) acceptable daily dose
b) allowable daily intake
c) the amount of the product in the daily diet
D) the cost of the product
29. What methods of environmental control are based on the use of probing fields?
a) contact
B) non-contact
c) biological
d) anthropogenic
30. What is an example of local environmental monitoring?
A) air pollution control system on highways
b) natural areas
c) landscape complexes
d) earthquake forecast
31. Which region ranks first in the emission of harmful substances into the atmosphere from stationary sources?
A) Krasnoyarsk Territory
b) Chelyabinsk
c) Moscow
d) Tyumen
32. Where are the largest reserves of fresh water concentrated?
a) groundwater
b) lakes
c) rivers
G) polar ice, glaciers
33. What value of the coefficient of complexity of processing of raw materials refers production to waste-free?
A) 96%
b) 76%
c) 56%
d) 36%
34. In what year did the accident at the Chernobyl nuclear power plant occur?
a) 1963
b) 1957
B) 1986
